Re: [PEIRCE-L] [EXTERNAL] A key principle of normative semeiotic for interpreting texts

2021-10-24 Thread JACK ROBERT KELLY CODY
Gary, List

Thanks, that's very well written. I agree with much of this more nuanced 
interpretation.

Jack


From: peirce-l-requ...@list.iupui.edu  on 
behalf of g...@gnusystems.ca 
Sent: Sunday, October 24, 2021 2:57 PM
To: 'Peirce-L' 
Subject: RE: [PEIRCE-L] [EXTERNAL] A key principle of normative semeiotic for 
interpreting texts


Jack, the pragmatic use of the final interpretant is that it serves as an ideal 
for each author and each reader to aim at: the Truth of the matter. It is not 
merely the last dynamic interpretant in the series; it is more like a 
mathematical limit, or like the final cause of a process, to use the 
Aristotelian term.

Think of the dialogue between writers and readers as a single continuous 
semiosic process. It differs from a real-time, in-person dialogue because there 
are long time gaps (and cultural gaps) between author and reader. The semiosic 
process has to bridge these gaps somehow; otherwise its continuity is lost. 
Even an in-person dialogue will break down if one of the partners does not 
trust the other to be aiming at the truth of the matter, and thinks that his 
utterances are otherwise motivated.

If we start with a text uttered by Peirce in, say, 1903, we trust that what he 
“had in mind” (i.e. the content of the text) was a sign purporting to think 
something true about some subject matter, which is the object of that sign. And 
we must presume that the text is another sign of the same object. The explicit 
text was presumably co-determined by (1) the dynamic object which was part of a 
context external to Peirce and (2) the context into which his perception of the 
object came, the context constituted by his habits of thought at the time, 
coupled with his intention to speak the truth about the object.

In order to approach a final interpretant of it — the truth which is 
independent of any individual interpreter — each dynamic interpretant of that 
text-sign in the chain (or rather network) following it (both temporally and 
logically) must be another sign of the same dynamic object. “Objectivity” is 
simply the interpreter’s habit of keeping his attention on that object, even 
though the text gives him only a “hint” (the immediate object) of what it is. 
Of course the dynamic interpretant is co-determined by the internal context of 
the interpreter, just as the original text was co-determined by the author’s 
habits and intentions. All interpretations are fallible. But if the reader does 
not share the author’s attention to the dynamic object, so that it is a focal 
point in the commens which author and reader share, then that object is remote 
from the determination of the dynamic interpretant, and the interpreter is left 
with nothing to go on except the reaction to the text determined by his own 
habits and intuitions. This is what we call a “subjective” reading.

Gary f.



From: peirce-l-requ...@list.iupui.edu  On 
Behalf Of JACK ROBERT KELLY CODY
Sent: 23-Oct-21 19:36
To: Peirce-L ; Gary Richmond 
Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] [EXTERNAL] A key principle of normative semeiotic for 
interpreting texts



Or, to put it another way if there were such an "objectivity" possible, 
students would not read Plato and Aristotle, they would read the logically 
"objective" meaning which we should, by now, have come to possess (which brings 
me back to final interpretant - two and half millennia is not enough to produce 
"objective" scholarly consensus, then what pragmatic use does the "final 
interpretant" actually have?





Jack



From: JACK ROBERT KELLY CODY 
mailto:jack.cody.2...@mumail.ie>>
Sent: Sunday, October 24, 2021 12:22 AM
To: Peirce-L mailto:peirce-l@list.iupui.edu>>; Gary 
Richmond mailto:gary.richm...@gmail.com>>
Subject: Re: [EXTERNAL] [PEIRCE-L] A key principle of normative semeiotic for 
interpreting texts





This, in turn, leads to the error of denying that there is any such thing as an 
objectively correct (or objectively incorrect) reading of a text. In terms Gary 
Fuhrman recently used, this mistaken view has the internal context of the 
interpreter govern over the external context that is shared with the utterer.



Gary, list,



What is an objectively correct reading of a text? Wouldn't it merely be one 
which reproduced the text entirely without adding or removing anything to/from 
it?



We can have objectively correct renderings of mathematical principles, but when 
we move to normative language, we would be lying to ourselves if we assumed we 
could always retrieve the author's intent within objectively scientific degrees 
of accuracy. Such is rarely (if ever) possible.



The object is experienced subjectively, and the subject (re)produces the object 
from these conditions. There cannot be an absolutely "objective" reading of a 
text (especially regarding intent). If there is, I 

RE: [PEIRCE-L] [EXTERNAL] A key principle of normative semeiotic for interpreting texts

2021-10-24 Thread gnox
Jack, the pragmatic use of the final interpretant is that it serves as an
ideal for each author and each reader to aim at: the Truth of the matter. It
is not merely the last dynamic interpretant in the series; it is more like a
mathematical limit, or like the final cause of a process, to use the
Aristotelian term.

Think of the dialogue between writers and readers as a single continuous
semiosic process. It differs from a real-time, in-person dialogue because
there are long time gaps (and cultural gaps) between author and reader. The
semiosic process has to bridge these gaps somehow; otherwise its continuity
is lost. Even an in-person dialogue will break down if one of the partners
does not trust the other to be aiming at the truth of the matter, and thinks
that his utterances are otherwise motivated.

If we start with a text uttered by Peirce in, say, 1903, we trust that what
he "had in mind" (i.e. the content of the text) was a sign purporting to
think something true about some subject matter, which is the object of that
sign. And we must presume that the text is another sign of the same object.
The explicit text was presumably co-determined by (1) the dynamic object
which was part of a context external to Peirce and (2) the context into
which his perception of the object came, the context constituted by his
habits of thought at the time, coupled with his intention to speak the truth
about the object. 

In order to approach a final interpretant of it - the truth which is
independent of any individual interpreter - each dynamic interpretant of
that text-sign in the chain (or rather network) following it (both
temporally and logically) must be another sign of the same dynamic object.
"Objectivity" is simply the interpreter's habit of keeping his attention on
that object, even though the text gives him only a "hint" (the immediate
object) of what it is. Of course the dynamic interpretant is co-determined
by the internal context of the interpreter, just as the original text was
co-determined by the author's habits and intentions. All interpretations are
fallible. But if the reader does not share the author's attention to the
dynamic object, so that it is a focal point in the commens which author and
reader share, then that object is remote from the determination of the
dynamic interpretant, and the interpreter is left with nothing to go on
except the reaction to the text determined by his own habits and intuitions.
This is what we call a "subjective" reading. 

Gary f.

 

From: peirce-l-requ...@list.iupui.edu  On
Behalf Of JACK ROBERT KELLY CODY
Sent: 23-Oct-21 19:36
To: Peirce-L ; Gary Richmond

Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] [EXTERNAL] A key principle of normative semeiotic
for interpreting texts

 

Or, to put it another way if there were such an "objectivity" possible,
students would not read Plato and Aristotle, they would read the logically
"objective" meaning which we should, by now, have come to possess (which
brings me back to final interpretant - two and half millennia is not enough
to produce "objective" scholarly consensus, then what pragmatic use does the
"final interpretant" actually have?

 

 

Jack 

  _  

From: JACK ROBERT KELLY CODY mailto:jack.cody.2...@mumail.ie> >
Sent: Sunday, October 24, 2021 12:22 AM
To: Peirce-L mailto:peirce-l@list.iupui.edu> >;
Gary Richmond mailto:gary.richm...@gmail.com> >
Subject: Re: [EXTERNAL] [PEIRCE-L] A key principle of normative semeiotic
for interpreting texts 

 





This, in turn, leads to the error of denying that there is any such thing as
an objectively correct (or objectively incorrect) reading of a text. In
terms Gary Fuhrman recently used, this mistaken view has the internal
context of the interpreter govern over the external context that is shared
with the utterer.

 

Gary, list,

 

What is an objectively correct reading of a text? Wouldn't it merely be one
which reproduced the text entirely without adding or removing anything
to/from it? 

 

We can have objectively correct renderings of mathematical principles, but
when we move to normative language, we would be lying to ourselves if we
assumed we could always retrieve the author's intent within objectively
scientific degrees of accuracy. Such is rarely (if ever) possible. 

 

The object is experienced subjectively, and the subject (re)produces the
object from these conditions. There cannot be an absolutely "objective"
reading of a text (especially regarding intent). If there is, I have yet to
encounter it (and suspect only people who agree with each other in every
respect have encountered such a thing). There are of course interpretations
of texts which we think of as being better than others - but I'm not "sold"
on the "final interpretant" of Peirce in a semeiotic system wherein all
evolves continuously (what is final?). 

 

Best

Re: [PEIRCE-L] [EXTERNAL] A key principle of normative semeiotic for interpreting texts

2021-10-23 Thread JACK ROBERT KELLY CODY
Or, to put it another way if there were such an "objectivity" possible, 
students would not read Plato and Aristotle, they would read the logically 
"objective" meaning which we should, by now, have come to possess (which brings 
me back to final interpretant - two and half millennia is not enough to produce 
"objective" scholarly consensus, then what pragmatic use does the "final 
interpretant" actually have?


Jack

From: JACK ROBERT KELLY CODY 
Sent: Sunday, October 24, 2021 12:22 AM
To: Peirce-L ; Gary Richmond 
Subject: Re: [EXTERNAL] [PEIRCE-L] A key principle of normative semeiotic for 
interpreting texts


This, in turn, leads to the error of denying that there is any such thing as an 
objectively correct (or objectively incorrect) reading of a text. In terms Gary 
Fuhrman recently used, this mistaken view has the internal context of the 
interpreter govern over the external context that is shared with the utterer.

Gary, list,

What is an objectively correct reading of a text? Wouldn't it merely be one 
which reproduced the text entirely without adding or removing anything to/from 
it?

We can have objectively correct renderings of mathematical principles, but when 
we move to normative language, we would be lying to ourselves if we assumed we 
could always retrieve the author's intent within objectively scientific degrees 
of accuracy. Such is rarely (if ever) possible.

The object is experienced subjectively, and the subject (re)produces the object 
from these conditions. There cannot be an absolutely "objective" reading of a 
text (especially regarding intent). If there is, I have yet to encounter it 
(and suspect only people who agree with each other in every respect have 
encountered such a thing). There are of course interpretations of texts which 
we think of as being better than others - but I'm not "sold" on the "final 
interpretant" of Peirce in a semeiotic system wherein all evolves continuously 
(what is final?).

Best

Jack


From: peirce-l-requ...@list.iupui.edu  on 
behalf of Gary Richmond 
Sent: Saturday, October 23, 2021 11:19 PM
To: Peirce-L 
Subject: [EXTERNAL] [PEIRCE-L] A key principle of normative semeiotic for 
interpreting texts

*Warning*

This email originated from outside of Maynooth University's Mail System. Do not 
reply, click links or open attachments unless you recognise the sender and know 
the content is safe.

List,

To incorrectly, in my opinion, define 'representamen' as 'the mediative node' 
-- for example, as the 'function' that transforms 'input' into 'output' -- 
effectively assigns the role of mediating between the object and interpretant 
to the interpreter rather than to the sign.

This, in turn, leads to the error of denying that there is any such thing as an 
objectively correct (or objectively incorrect) reading of a text. In terms Gary 
Fuhrman recently used, this mistaken view has the internal context of the 
interpreter govern over the external context that is shared with the utterer.

If we abandon this ideal of objectivity -- which, of course, can never be 
perfectly or exactly realized -- we are left with nothing that serves as a 
standard for assessing actual interpretations.

In the view of some on this List and off, this goal in the case of a written 
text is always properly discerning the author's intended meaning (intentional 
interpretant) as expressed in the text (immediate interpretant). For anyone who 
makes the interpreter the mediator, rather than the sign being that, there are 
only various individual readings, none of which is more or less valid than any 
other.

Such a version of semiotics is not a normative science at all as It provides no 
basis for evaluating any particular reading as a better interpretation of a 
text, or even a misinterpretation of the text. And who would honestly deny that 
misinterpretations of texts do indeed occur? And who would seriously argue that 
any and every interpretation is as good as any other?

Best,

Gary R

“Let everything happen to you
Beauty and terror
Just keep going
No feeling is final”
― Rainer Maria Rilke

Gary Richmond
Philosophy and Critical Thinking
Communication Studies
LaGuardia College of the City University of New York





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Re: [PEIRCE-L] [EXTERNAL] A key principle of normative semeiotic for interpreting texts

2021-10-23 Thread JACK ROBERT KELLY CODY

This, in turn, leads to the error of denying that there is any such thing as an 
objectively correct (or objectively incorrect) reading of a text. In terms Gary 
Fuhrman recently used, this mistaken view has the internal context of the 
interpreter govern over the external context that is shared with the utterer.

Gary, list,

What is an objectively correct reading of a text? Wouldn't it merely be one 
which reproduced the text entirely without adding or removing anything to/from 
it?

We can have objectively correct renderings of mathematical principles, but when 
we move to normative language, we would be lying to ourselves if we assumed we 
could always retrieve the author's intent within objectively scientific degrees 
of accuracy. Such is rarely (if ever) possible.

The object is experienced subjectively, and the subject (re)produces the object 
from these conditions. There cannot be an absolutely "objective" reading of a 
text (especially regarding intent). If there is, I have yet to encounter it 
(and suspect only people who agree with each other in every respect have 
encountered such a thing). There are of course interpretations of texts which 
we think of as being better than others - but I'm not "sold" on the "final 
interpretant" of Peirce in a semeiotic system wherein all evolves continuously 
(what is final?).

Best

Jack


From: peirce-l-requ...@list.iupui.edu  on 
behalf of Gary Richmond 
Sent: Saturday, October 23, 2021 11:19 PM
To: Peirce-L 
Subject: [EXTERNAL] [PEIRCE-L] A key principle of normative semeiotic for 
interpreting texts

*Warning*

This email originated from outside of Maynooth University's Mail System. Do not 
reply, click links or open attachments unless you recognise the sender and know 
the content is safe.

List,

To incorrectly, in my opinion, define 'representamen' as 'the mediative node' 
-- for example, as the 'function' that transforms 'input' into 'output' -- 
effectively assigns the role of mediating between the object and interpretant 
to the interpreter rather than to the sign.

This, in turn, leads to the error of denying that there is any such thing as an 
objectively correct (or objectively incorrect) reading of a text. In terms Gary 
Fuhrman recently used, this mistaken view has the internal context of the 
interpreter govern over the external context that is shared with the utterer.

If we abandon this ideal of objectivity -- which, of course, can never be 
perfectly or exactly realized -- we are left with nothing that serves as a 
standard for assessing actual interpretations.

In the view of some on this List and off, this goal in the case of a written 
text is always properly discerning the author's intended meaning (intentional 
interpretant) as expressed in the text (immediate interpretant). For anyone who 
makes the interpreter the mediator, rather than the sign being that, there are 
only various individual readings, none of which is more or less valid than any 
other.

Such a version of semiotics is not a normative science at all as It provides no 
basis for evaluating any particular reading as a better interpretation of a 
text, or even a misinterpretation of the text. And who would honestly deny that 
misinterpretations of texts do indeed occur? And who would seriously argue that 
any and every interpretation is as good as any other?

Best,

Gary R

“Let everything happen to you
Beauty and terror
Just keep going
No feeling is final”
― Rainer Maria Rilke

Gary Richmond
Philosophy and Critical Thinking
Communication Studies
LaGuardia College of the City University of New York





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► PEIRCE-L subscribers: Click on "Reply List" or "Reply All" to REPLY ON 
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► PEIRCE-L is owned by THE PEIRCE GROUP;  moderated by Gary Richmond;  and 
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