Re: DIS: What authorizes the Referee to impose the Cold Hand of Justice?
Thanks. I think that makes sense, and it certainly makes CFJ 3726 more interesting. I'll assume you're right unless I hear more about it. On Sun, 2 Jun 2019 at 01:13, Aris Merchant wrote: > Y’all, I think you’re overthinking this. “authorize” isn’t necessarily a > synonym for “enable”. According to Google, the definition is “give official > permission for or approval to”. I think telling someone they’re required to > do something as part of their job counts as “authorization” to do it > according to the common language meaning of the word authorize. > > -Aris > > On Sat, Jun 1, 2019 at 8:05 AM D. Margaux wrote: > > > Interesting catch! Is there any argument that, in this circumstance, MUST > > implies CAN? I think probably that argument doesn’t work, but here’s what > > it might say: > > > > There is no method for the Referee to discharge eir mandatory duties > > except by imposing the Cold Hand of Justice when warranted. If e CANNOT > > impose the Cold Hand of Justice when e MUST do so, then there is no LEGAL > > way for the Referee to perform eir duties. > > > > A *player*, of course, has in eir control a method to satisfy eir > > mandatory obligations—e can resign the office of Referee. But that result > > runs contrary to the implicit presuppositions that underlie the very > > creation of the Office of Referee—i.e., that a player could in theory > > assume that office and discharge its responsibilities. Unless the Referee > > CAN impose the Cold Hand when warranted, then there is no way for a player > > to assume the office of Referee and discharge its duties as required by > > rule. > > > > MUST would not imply CAN in all circumstances. For example, a player could > > pledge to deregister every other player; based on that pledge, e MUST do > > that but e probably CANNOT. What e *could* have done, however, is to not > > make the pledge in the first place. As a result, e had in eir control a > > method to satisfy eir mandatory obligations (not make the pledge in the > > first place). And that wouldn’t contradict any implicit presuppositions > > underlying the Rules, since the Rules presuppose that players may make > > pledges they can’t satisfy. > > > > The obvious problem with this whole interpretation is that imposing the > > Cold Hand is a regulated action under Rule 2125; regulated actions CAN be > > performed only by methods explicitly provided by rule; and there is no > > *explicit* mechanism for imposing the Cold Hand, only the implicit one > > described above. So I think, Kant notwithstanding, in this case MUST > > probably does not imply CAN... > > > > > On May 31, 2019, at 9:46 PM, James Cook wrote: > > > > > > In preparing judgements for CFJs 3726 and 3727, I realized I don't > > > know why the Referee CAN impose the Cold Hand of Justice. > > > > > > R2478 says the investigator SHALL, but not that e CAN. > > > > > > R2557 says that e CAN do so if the rules "authorize" em to, but I > > > don't see any rules authorizing anyone to do so. > > > > > > Am I missing something? > >
Re: DIS: What authorizes the Referee to impose the Cold Hand of Justice?
Y’all, I think you’re overthinking this. “authorize” isn’t necessarily a synonym for “enable”. According to Google, the definition is “give official permission for or approval to”. I think telling someone they’re required to do something as part of their job counts as “authorization” to do it according to the common language meaning of the word authorize. -Aris On Sat, Jun 1, 2019 at 8:05 AM D. Margaux wrote: > Interesting catch! Is there any argument that, in this circumstance, MUST > implies CAN? I think probably that argument doesn’t work, but here’s what > it might say: > > There is no method for the Referee to discharge eir mandatory duties > except by imposing the Cold Hand of Justice when warranted. If e CANNOT > impose the Cold Hand of Justice when e MUST do so, then there is no LEGAL > way for the Referee to perform eir duties. > > A *player*, of course, has in eir control a method to satisfy eir > mandatory obligations—e can resign the office of Referee. But that result > runs contrary to the implicit presuppositions that underlie the very > creation of the Office of Referee—i.e., that a player could in theory > assume that office and discharge its responsibilities. Unless the Referee > CAN impose the Cold Hand when warranted, then there is no way for a player > to assume the office of Referee and discharge its duties as required by > rule. > > MUST would not imply CAN in all circumstances. For example, a player could > pledge to deregister every other player; based on that pledge, e MUST do > that but e probably CANNOT. What e *could* have done, however, is to not > make the pledge in the first place. As a result, e had in eir control a > method to satisfy eir mandatory obligations (not make the pledge in the > first place). And that wouldn’t contradict any implicit presuppositions > underlying the Rules, since the Rules presuppose that players may make > pledges they can’t satisfy. > > The obvious problem with this whole interpretation is that imposing the > Cold Hand is a regulated action under Rule 2125; regulated actions CAN be > performed only by methods explicitly provided by rule; and there is no > *explicit* mechanism for imposing the Cold Hand, only the implicit one > described above. So I think, Kant notwithstanding, in this case MUST > probably does not imply CAN... > > > On May 31, 2019, at 9:46 PM, James Cook wrote: > > > > In preparing judgements for CFJs 3726 and 3727, I realized I don't > > know why the Referee CAN impose the Cold Hand of Justice. > > > > R2478 says the investigator SHALL, but not that e CAN. > > > > R2557 says that e CAN do so if the rules "authorize" em to, but I > > don't see any rules authorizing anyone to do so. > > > > Am I missing something? >
Re: DIS: What authorizes the Referee to impose the Cold Hand of Justice?
Interesting catch! Is there any argument that, in this circumstance, MUST implies CAN? I think probably that argument doesn’t work, but here’s what it might say: There is no method for the Referee to discharge eir mandatory duties except by imposing the Cold Hand of Justice when warranted. If e CANNOT impose the Cold Hand of Justice when e MUST do so, then there is no LEGAL way for the Referee to perform eir duties. A *player*, of course, has in eir control a method to satisfy eir mandatory obligations—e can resign the office of Referee. But that result runs contrary to the implicit presuppositions that underlie the very creation of the Office of Referee—i.e., that a player could in theory assume that office and discharge its responsibilities. Unless the Referee CAN impose the Cold Hand when warranted, then there is no way for a player to assume the office of Referee and discharge its duties as required by rule. MUST would not imply CAN in all circumstances. For example, a player could pledge to deregister every other player; based on that pledge, e MUST do that but e probably CANNOT. What e *could* have done, however, is to not make the pledge in the first place. As a result, e had in eir control a method to satisfy eir mandatory obligations (not make the pledge in the first place). And that wouldn’t contradict any implicit presuppositions underlying the Rules, since the Rules presuppose that players may make pledges they can’t satisfy. The obvious problem with this whole interpretation is that imposing the Cold Hand is a regulated action under Rule 2125; regulated actions CAN be performed only by methods explicitly provided by rule; and there is no *explicit* mechanism for imposing the Cold Hand, only the implicit one described above. So I think, Kant notwithstanding, in this case MUST probably does not imply CAN... > On May 31, 2019, at 9:46 PM, James Cook wrote: > > In preparing judgements for CFJs 3726 and 3727, I realized I don't > know why the Referee CAN impose the Cold Hand of Justice. > > R2478 says the investigator SHALL, but not that e CAN. > > R2557 says that e CAN do so if the rules "authorize" em to, but I > don't see any rules authorizing anyone to do so. > > Am I missing something?
DIS: What authorizes the Referee to impose the Cold Hand of Justice?
In preparing judgements for CFJs 3726 and 3727, I realized I don't know why the Referee CAN impose the Cold Hand of Justice. R2478 says the investigator SHALL, but not that e CAN. R2557 says that e CAN do so if the rules "authorize" em to, but I don't see any rules authorizing anyone to do so. Am I missing something?
