> is it right to assume the maximum kriging variance
> to be =2 when using a
> variogram with a standardized sill of 1 ??
Yes, if you are estimating the value at a point from
only one sample which is outside its range of
influence.
Isobel
http://uk.geocities.com/drisobelclark/practica.htm
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just another question to the list:
ist it right to assume the maximum kriging variance to be =2 when using a
variogram with a standardized sill of 1 ??
gretings
Lorenz Dobler
Universität Münster
Institut für Geoinformatik
Robert-Koch-Strasse 26-28
D-48149 Münster
Tel.: 0251/83-30089
Fax: 0251/
Lorenz
Your samples also have to be out of the range of
influence of one another to get equal weights. The
left hand side of the equations needs to be an
identity matrix (well, with the total sill down the
diagonal and zeroes everywhere else) to get equal
weights.
Isobel {Clark}
http://geoecosse.
hell list,
i did a little exercise with ordinary kriging with extreme sample distances.
as i understand: if all distances between samples and gridpoint are bigger
than the range, the kriging estimation should be equal to the sample mean =>
all samples should get the same weight.
in my example ev
