Re: Is it possible to use one KSK for multiple domains?

2008-11-20 Thread Stephane Bortzmeyer
On Wed, Nov 19, 2008 at 09:55:52PM +0100,
 Adam Tkac [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote 
 a message of 17 lines which said:

 If I understand correctly what RFC 4034, section 2.1.1 says ... If
 bit 7 has value 1, then the DNSKEY record holds a DNS zone key, and
 the DNSKEY RR's owner name MUST be the name of a zone... it is
 impossible. Each zone has to have his own KSK and ZSK pair, hasn't
 it?

[Warning: still struggling with the subtleties of KSK/ZSK.]

The text you quote is for DNS publication. But you typically do not
put KSK in the DNS, no?

I would say, quoting Tolkien: one ZSK per zone, but only one KSK to
sign them all.

[AFNIC manages six TLD so the answer interests us, too.]

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Re: Is it possible to use one KSK for multiple domains?

2008-11-20 Thread Niall O'Reilly
On Wed, 2008-11-19 at 21:55 +0100, Adam Tkac wrote:
 does anyone know if is it possible to sign multiple domains with one
 KSK?

Adam,

I suspect your question may need to be more specific.

Are you asking about the signing process itself, or rather 
about how certain aspects of this process need to be exposed
in the DNS?

The RFC-fragment you cite seems to me to require that each 
signed zone needs its set of [KZ]SK exposed in the DNS, but 
to be silent on whether a single key can be reused by appearing
as RDATA in the DNSKEY RRsets of multiple zones.

I haven't read 4033/4034 thoroughly, so it's possible I may 
have misunderstood completely.

Best regards,

Niall O'Reilly


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Re: Is it possible to use one KSK for multiple domains?

2008-11-20 Thread Stephane Bortzmeyer
On Thu, Nov 20, 2008 at 11:55:17AM +,
 Chris Thompson [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote 
 a message of 33 lines which said:

 The text you quote is for DNS publication. But you typically do not
 put KSK in the DNS, no?

 Sure you do. How could a validator use it if you didn't? 

Because it is published as a trust anchor?
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