Re: [deal.II] Interpolation between FE_Q- and FE_Bernstein elements

2019-05-30 Thread 'Maxi Miller' via deal.II User Group
On a second test I found out that by resetting the out-vector to 0 I get the expected output, regardless of direction. Does that make sense? Am Donnerstag, 30. Mai 2019 22:25:59 UTC+2 schrieb Maxi Miller: > > That means that I don't have to create that matrix myself, but rather use > the matrix

Re: [deal.II] Interpolation between FE_Q- and FE_Bernstein elements

2019-05-30 Thread 'Maxi Miller' via deal.II User Group
That means that I don't have to create that matrix myself, but rather use the matrix I get from FE_Q_*::get_interpolation_matrix()? The most interesting bug my code has at the moment is: Q(a)->B(b): I get identical vectors, i.e. a == b B(b)->Q(a): Vectors are not identical anymore, a != b

Re: [deal.II] Interpolation between FE_Q- and FE_Bernstein elements

2019-05-30 Thread Wolfgang Bangerth
On 5/30/19 9:06 AM, 'Maxi Miller' via deal.II User Group wrote: > I wanted to write some functions to convert my solution from using > FE_Q-elements to FE_Bernstein-elements (and back). For that I wrote two > functions, convert_feQ_to_feB() and convert_feB_to_feQ() (as listed in the >

[deal.II] Interpolation between FE_Q- and FE_Bernstein elements

2019-05-30 Thread 'Maxi Miller' via deal.II User Group
I wanted to write some functions to convert my solution from using FE_Q-elements to FE_Bernstein-elements (and back). For that I wrote two functions, convert_feQ_to_feB() and convert_feB_to_feQ() (as listed in the attachment). When converting from FE_Q-elements to FE_Bernstein-elements, I get