Is it possible to compare two unrelated groups of samples using
Hartley's F-max? In other words if I have two groups of samples, can I
use Hartley's F-max to compare their "heterogeneity" without taking
into account their respective means?
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Before you buy.
In article [EMAIL PROTECTED],
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
What you do mean when you say, "I have two groups of samples"?
How does this differ from having one large group of samples?
Hartley's will *always* take into account the respective means, in
the sense that the variance are