Re: on formally describable universes and measures

2001-02-28 Thread Marchal

Russell Standish wrote:


Marchal wrote:
 
 Hi Juergen,
 
 I would like to nuance my last Post I send to you.
 
 First I see in other posts, written by you, that your
 computable real numbers are *limit* computable. It still
 seems to me possible to diagonalize against that,
 although it is probably less trivial.
  
 But I think it isn't really relevant in our present discussion, 
 because the
 continuum I am talking about appears in the first person discourse 
 of the machines, so it is better to 
 keep discussing the main point, which is the relevance
 of the first person point of view, with comp, when
 we are searching for a TOE.

It seems to me that the cardinality of UD*, or whether UD* is a
continuum or not is rather irrelevant. My understanding is that the UD
argument implies a first person indeterminancy, ie every first person
experience will have access to a random oracle.

All right. I guess you agree that such random oracle appears also with
the iterative self-duplication, which is itself appearing in UD*.


I think the argument goes something like this:

1) UD algorithms will have high measure in the space of all
computations, much higher than a direct implementation of a conscious AI
(assuming such things exist).

Hopefully so. Intuitively so. Not so easy to prove. Note also that if
you implement a conscious AI it will itself be embedded in UD*, from
his own point of view, and it will have access also to some
random oracle.

2) Therefore, it is more likely that a conscious AI will find itself
imbedded in the output of a UD, with access to a random oracle

That's what I was  saying ! And that conscious AI will even find itself
in the output of an immaterial UD in Plato heaven.

(Of course my viewpoint is that consciousness _requires_ access to a
random oracle, making conclusion 2 even stronger, but it is not
necessary for the argument).

Consciousness _requires_ access to a random oracle for having 
relatively stable histories. Perhaps through the phase randomisation
of the white rabbits (cf my recent paper).


Bruno





If I'm computable, then so is my universe.

2001-02-28 Thread Michiel de Jong

In his IMO excellent message Algorithmic TOEs vs Nonalgorithmic
TOEs, Schmidhuber states that things one cannot describe, do not
exist. 

If I interpret correctly, Schmidhuber was aiming, in this context, at
_entire_ universes one cannot describe.
I agree with this, but propose to extend this reasoning to _aspects_
of universes one cannot describe: I define my universe as equal to
all I know about my universe.

Now suppose that I (me being my mind state at this moment in time) am
computable. That means that all I know about my universe is
computable too, because this knowledge is part of my mind state.

Therefore, if I'm computable, then so is my universe.

(Forgive me if this is stupid or old.)

Michiel de Jong,
http://www.cwi.nl/~mbj




Re: another anthropic reasoning paradox

2001-02-28 Thread George Levy



Wei Dai wrote:

 The paradox is what happens if we run Alice and Bob's minds on different
 substrates, so that Bob's mind has a much higher measure than Alice's.

I fail to understand the paradox. In the case where they are on the same
substrate, they are more likely to push button 2. OK
In the case where they run on different substrate, the decision is not any
different: Bob's memory has been erased and his decision will still be to push
button 2, independently of his measure. He will lose, but since he has no
memory of his past, he can't even verify that he is Bob by running the same
experiment 1000 times for example. Erasing their memory puts a big cabosh on
the meaning of who they really are. I could argue that Bob is not really Bob
and Alice is not really Alice. Their identity has been reduced to a *bare* I
and they are actually identical  In addition,  I think the whole concept
of measure is faulty. If you could measure your measure you would find the
measurement always identical no matter where, when or who you are. I mentioned
this in earlier posts as a kind of Cosmological principle. Substrates and
measures are just red herrings.

George




Re: another anthropic reasoning paradox

2001-02-28 Thread Russell Standish

I don't see a paradox here. In the latter situations, the volunteers
are acting in accordance with different information, ie that of their
measures. If they were not aware of their measures, they would have to
assume a 50/50 chance of being A or B, hence would choose button 1.

Cheers

Wei Dai wrote:
 
 Consider the following thought experiment. 
 
 Two volunteers who don't know each other, Alice and Bob, are given
 temporary amnesia and placed in identical virtual environments. They are
 then both presented with three buttons and told the following:
 
 If you push 1, you will lose $9
 If you push 2 and you are Alice, you will win $10
 If you push 2 and you are Bob, you will lose $10
 
 I'll assume that everyone agrees that both people will push button 2.
 
 The paradox is what happens if we run Alice and Bob's minds on different
 substrates, so that Bob's mind has a much higher measure than Alice's. If
 they apply anthropic reasoning they'll both think they're much more likely
 to be Bob than Alice, and push button 1.
 
 If you don't think this is paradoxical, suppose we repeat the choice but
 with the payoffs for button 2 reversed, so that Bob wins $10 instead of
 Alice, and we also swap the two minds so that Alice is running on the
 substrate that generates more measure instead of Bob. They'll again both
 push button 1. But notice that at the end both people would have been
 better off if they pushed button 2 in both rounds.
 
 Any anthropic reasoning proponents want to tackle this?
 




Dr. Russell Standish Director
High Performance Computing Support Unit, Phone 9385 6967
UNSW SYDNEY 2052 Fax   9385 6965
Australia[EMAIL PROTECTED] 
Room 2075, Red Centrehttp://parallel.hpc.unsw.edu.au/rks





Re: on formally describable universes and measures

2001-02-28 Thread juergen



 The best you can achieve is an algorithm that outputs at least the 
 computable infinite reals in the sense that it outputs their 
 finite descriptions or programs.
 
 I am not sure I understand you here.
 Are you aware that the set of descriptions of computable reals
 is not closed for the diagonalisation procedure.
 That is: you cannot generate all (and only)  descriptions of
 computable reals. The algorithm you are mentionning does not exist.
 You can only generate a superset of the set of all computable reals.
 That set (of description of all computable reals) is even
 constructively not *recursively enumerable* in the sense that,
 if you give me an algorithm generating the (description of) 
 computable real, I can transform it for building a computable 
 real not being generated by your algorithm. I guess you know that.
 
 That is why most formal constructivists consider their set of
 constructive reals as subset
 of the Turing computable reals. For exemple you can choose the 
 set of reals which are provably
 computable in some formal system (like the system F by Girard,
 in which you can formalize ..., well Hilbert space and probably 
 the whole of the *constructive* part of Tegmark mathematical ontology!
 That is very nice and big but not enough big for my purpose which
 has some necessarily non constructive feature. 
 About natural numbers and machines I am a classical
 platonist. About real numbers I have no definite opinion.

The describable reals are those computable in the limit by finite GTM
programs. There is a program that eventually outputs all finite programs
for a given GTM, by listing all possible program prefixes. Sure, in
general one cannot decide whether a given prefix in the current list
indeed is a complete program, or whether a given prefix will still grow longer
by requesting additional input bits, or whether it will even grow forever,
or whether it will really compute a real in the limit, or whether it won't
because some of its output bits will flip back and forth forever:
http://rapa.idsia.ch/~juergen/toesv2/node9.html

But what do such undecidability results really mean? Are they relevant in
any way? They do not imply that I cannot write down finite descriptions
of the describable reals - they just mean that in general I cannot know
at a given time which of the current list elements are indeed complete
descriptions of some real, and which are not. Still, after finite time
my list of symbol sequences will contain a complete description of any
given computable real.

Thus undecidable properties do not necessarily make things nonconstructive.

 Can you imagine yourself as a Platonist for a while, if only
 for the sake of the reasoning?

I am not even sure what exactly a Platonist is.

  Do I need any additional
 preliminaries to realize why I genuinely fail to understand your
 invariance lemma?
 
 Sure. The delays question for exemple. Let us follow Jesse Mazer
 idea of torture. Suppose I duplicate you and reconstitute you, not
 in Washington and Moscow but in some Paradise and some Hell.
 Would you feel more comfortable if I tell you
 I will reconstitute you in paradise tomorow and in hell only in
 3001 after C. ? Is that what you would choose?

Choose? Do I have a choice? Which is my choice?

 Computationalism is more a human right than a doctrinal truth. 

I skipped this statement and related ones...

Juergen