Re: MWI, Copenhage, Randomness (fwd)

2002-09-10 Thread Brent Meeker

On 09-Sep-02, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 Jesse Mazer wrote:



 Bruno Marchal wrote:




 Jesse Mazer wrote




 Ok, I think I see where my mistake was. I was thinking
 that decoherence just referred to interactions between a
 system and the external environment, but what you seem to
 be saying is that it can also refer to an internal effect
 where interactions among the components of a system with
 many degrees of freedom cause interference terms to become
 negligible. If that's correct, then when Wigner decided
 that interference would cause the wavefunction of the cat
 or Wigner's friend to collapse even before the box or
 the room was opened, then he was probably referring to
 this sort of internal effect, so my argument about using
 quantum computers to simulate truly impenetrable boxes
 would not make a difference.

 BM:
 decoherence refers to anything interacting with what you
 are, as observer, describing by a wave function, and which
 is not currently described by your wave function. (- need
 of a tensor product). IMO, it has been discovered by
 Everett and it explained why we don't feel the split or the
 differentiation. Decoherence is just entanglement with the
 the environment, it is the contagion of the superposition
 state, the linearity of the tensor product.



 JM:
 I probably need to read up on the actual mathematics behind
 decoherence before I can discuss it very intelligently.
 Brent Meeker seemed to say that even in the case of an
 isolated system whose wavefunction we know completely, if it
 has many degrees of freedom there will be an effect which
 approximates wavefunction collapse in which interference
 terms become neglible. Presumably this does not collapse
 the wavefunction onto any one particular classical state
 (dead cat vs. live cat), but by eliminating interference
 terms you get something similar to classical probabilities,
 where you're free to assume the cat is really in some
 state all along and your measurement just reveals that
 preexisting state (interference is the reason you get into
 trouble thinking that way about the quantum world, as is
 shown most clearly by the Bell inequality).

 I don't know whether this diagonalization effect in an
 isolated system would normally be called decoherence or if
 some other term would be used. I'd guess that they're two
 sides of the same coin, since if you knew the wavefunction
 for system + external environment it would itself have a
 large number of degrees of freedom, so the principle is
 probably the same. Also, I don't know whether Wigner was
 referring to an internal diagonalization effect or to
 entanglement with the outside environment when he argued
 that decoherence shows that the act of opening the box and
 observing the cat has no particular importance.






 BM: I don't see how the internal interaction could leads to
 decoherence, unless the information is not available to the
 observer. If a cat is in the (a + d) state in the box, and if
 we know the state of each air molecules in the box, we can
 in principle observe macro cat interferences. Obviously we
 cannot
 keep track of all those molecules and that's why in practice,
 even if the box completely isolates the cat and the air
 molecules we will not be able to see the
 interferences. So Brent is practically right, but the we
 loose the ability of witnessing interferences just if the cat
 interact with *any* particle we didn't
 keep track of, whether that particle was inside the box or
 not.

Right. Because we cannot construct an appratus that measures an
operator corresponding to determing the state of the cat and
all the particles the cat interacts with and which constitute
the cat, we cannot observe the interference between the very
complicated dead-subspace and live-subspace.  However while
this is a limitation in practice and not in the mathematics,
it is more than *merely* practical.  We, or anything
exhibiting intelligence, must have memory, i.e. irreversible
encoding of some past events/experience.  This implies that
we, and our instruments, must be macroscopic, quasi-classical
things.  So it is impossible that we, or other intelligent
beings, can experience the interference effects. I suspect
that this is a counter-argument to Deutsche's AI quantum
computer that experiences interference, but I haven't worked
it through.

...
 JM:
 Maybe since this is a computer simulation where we know
 the dynamical rules and initial state precisely, we would
 know just where to look for even the smallest interference
 effects, unlike in an ordinary macroscopic system where we
 don't have such detailed information. Also, we could run
 such a simulation over and over again from the same
 initial conditions, which would also help to detect small
 statistical deviations from classical predictions. I once
 read a comment by Deutch about decoherence where he said
 something like (paraphrasing) saying the interference
 terms are 'almost' zero is like saying someone is a 

Re: Duplication Thought Experiment Involving Complementarity

2002-09-10 Thread George Levy





Russell Standish wrote:
[EMAIL PROTECTED]">
  George Levy wrote:...As it stand, the comp hypothesis is only a philosophical exercise because it does not reproduce the same phenomenon as QM in particular the phenomenon of complementarity. Therefore, to establish a meaningful relevance between comp and QM we must show that such phenomena can be incorporated in comp.The following thought experiment is an attempt to illustrate how complementarity can be incorporated into a duplication experiment. This experiment raises some interesting questions regarding the relationship between the scientific MW and the philosopical plenitude.Thought Experiment:
  
  
QuestionsThis thought experiment, attempt to provide a model of how MW relates to the Comp hypothesis. Many questions arise.1) Why is it that the Plenitude is not directly accessed by QM as explained by comp. Why is there a need for an intermediate MW characterized by complementarity?2) Why is complementarity two-dimensional? Could it be three-dimentional?  or higher?3) Is the two-dimensionality of complementarity fact-like? Are there other worlds in the Plenitude which have a complementarity with a higher dimensionality?4) Is the MW only one instance in the Plenitude? How many levels do we have to go from the scientifically determined MW to the philosophically determined Plenitude?5) Is complementarity anthropically necessary?This is only a feable attempt in the generation of a physical model to relate comp to the MW. I hope that we can improve on it through our discussions.Geor
ge

I would like to point out that my "Why Occam's Razor" paper answersabout 90% of your question (with the other 10% being the mostdifficult bit, or course :).Complementarity is a property of any two quantum operators that arerelated by the Fourier transform (x - id/dx). The proof is wellknown, and can be found (eg) in Shankar's book.


Come on! This is circular reasoning. Conventional QM complementarity requires
2D Fourier. Therefore 2D Fourier must describe complementarity. True for
conventional QM. I was talking about other MWs within the Plenitude. Could
their complementarity be described by Hadamar transforms for example?
[EMAIL PROTECTED]">
  That momentum is represented by derivative operator (P=id/dx) iscalled the correspondence principle, and is usually given as an axiom(see Shankar). Henry gave a "derivation" of this correspondenceprinciple about 10 years ago, (Bruno kindly sent me a copy), but Ibelieve his derivation is faulty. To date, I still gregard thecorrespondence principle as a mystery.The other "axioms" of quantum mechanics can be derived from a simplemodel of observation (set out in Why Occams razor). Observers selectan observation purely at random from an ensemble of choices, subjectto the anthropic constraint. This is analogous to Darwinian evolution,where natural selection selects from natural variation. It is mysupposition that this generalized evolutionary process is the onlypossible creative process - the only means of generating the complex(information rich) structures from the simple ones that are favoured int
he Schmidhuber ensemble.It is the anthropic principle that requires us to live in aninformation rich world. The AP is a mystery - one that I believe to beequivalent to the famous "mind-body" problem, ie why should we observea correspondence between our mind and a a complex structure called thebrain?So to answer your dot points:1) The above mechanism is why we need an intermediate Multiverse.2) The complementarity is 2D because the Fourier transform is its owninverse. 
  
I don't agree with this reasoning. It is circular.
  
  
  [EMAIL PROTECTED]">
A 3D complementarity relationship would require a 3-cycletransformation between operators:   X--Y   ^  /\v Z(ASCII characters are _so_ limited...)To fully answer this question requires answering "Why the correspondenceprinciple?"3) appears to be related to 2) ...?4) The Multiverse appears to be the only one containing consciousobservers (subject to the above model of consciousness being necessary).5) I believe yes (subject to an adequate derivation of thecorrespondence principle existing).


Interesting but you haven't convinced me.

George




Re: Duplication Thought Experiment Involving Complementarity

2002-09-10 Thread George Levy





jamikes wrote:

  
  
  
  George Levy wrote a comprehensive thought
 experiment with a major flaw:
  6.6257 square miles arenot interchangeable
to  6.6257 sqare kilometers.
  
  
There was indeterminacy in the units. But the number is real and does correspond
to a natural constant.  ;-) 
  
George
  
  


Re: Duplication Thought Experiment Involving Complementarity

2002-09-10 Thread George Levy



Bruno Marchal wrote:

 George Levy wrote:

 Bruno Marchal wrote:

 George Levy asks recently Could somebody incorporate 
 complementarity in a thought experiment in the style of Bruno's 
 duplication experiment?

 This is an interesting proposal and I would be glad if someone manage
 to present one. Just that it is *because* duplication-like 
 experiment leads
 quickly to obscurities and misleading intuitions, *that* modal logic
 appears to be a fruitful investment, even if it is not the only one.


 GL: As it stand, the comp hypothesis is only a philosophical exercise 
 because it does not reproduce the same phenomenon as QM in particular 
 the phenomenon of complementarity.




 BM:
 Do you mean it does not reproduce the same phenomenon as QM, or do
 you mean that we have not yet understood how it could reproduce the
 same ph enomenon as QM? 

I don't know enough to be certain about either possibility. But if comp 
is true, it is not intuitive how it can explain QM. There is a need for 
a thought experiment that would connect the two.

 I will not bore you with technics buts complementarity can be handled
 in Z1* (extract from comp) although there are still open problems.


If you could construct a thought experiment using Z1, it would certainly 
stengthen the argument for comp as a potential explanation for QM.




Re: R: Duplication Thought Experiment Involving Complementarity

2002-09-10 Thread George Levy





scerir wrote:
002401c25780$ce1358c0$f0c7fea9@scerir">
  
  
George  Levy:
5) Is  complementarity anthropically necessary?
  
  I may be wrong but it seems to me that  complementarity
  is nothing more, and nothing less than a  consequence
  of the finiteness of (quantum) information.
  
  
I don't understand.
  
  002401c25780$ce1358c0$f0c7fea9@scerir">
It seems also that the complementarity principle
 is
a "smooth" principle. 

Yes, this is a difference between the thought experiment and nature. Or is
it? The fact that we haven't been able to show discreteness in QM indeterminacy
is no proof that there isn't.
002401c25780$ce1358c0$f0c7fea9@scerir">
  When we say, i.e. following von  
  Weizsaeker, 
that localization and superposition are  
  complementary, we
mean that the  predictability of the 
  path plus the visibility
of the  interference fringes (in the 
  double slit  experiment)equals
a certain constant.
  
  There is a "smooth" transition between the
wave-like  
behavior and the particle-like behaviour. 
  
  Wootters and Zurek [see "Complementarity in
the  Double-
Slit Experiment: Quantum Nonseparability and a
Quantitative  Statement of Bohr's Principle", in 
Physical Review, D19, (1979)] showed that  a photon
still has a wave-like behaviour even if the path
(the which way  in a double-slit experiment) is
predicted almost certainly. Their  gedanken
experiment is very simple: a single-slit 
  + a double-slit + a screen.
  
  Thus to me the question "Is complementarity
anthropically  
  necessary?" means "Can *we* get infinite  information
  from a single quantum?"
  
  
This would be a great feature for quantum computers. But I don't understand
how you arrive to this conclusion.
  
George
  002401c25780$ce1358c0$f0c7fea9@scerir">







Re: Duplication Thought Experiment Involving Complementarity

2002-09-10 Thread Russell Standish

George Levy wrote:
 
 Complementarity is a property of any two quantum operators that are
 related by the Fourier transform (x - id/dx). The proof is well
 known, and can be found (eg) in Shankar's book.
 
 
 Come on! This is circular reasoning. Conventional QM complementarity 
 requires 2D Fourier. Therefore 2D Fourier must describe complementarity. 
 True for conventional QM. I was talking about other MWs within the 
 Plenitude. Could their complementarity be described by Hadamar 
 transforms for example?
 

Not sure - the Hadamard transform is defined on a 2D vector space, and
is equivalent to rotations by 45 degrees. This is rather
restrictive. However, you could make your point with other transforms
perhaps a Laplace transform, or wavelets. I suspect that the proper
transform to use depends on what are the natural boundary conditions,
ie if your wavefunctions are elements of L^2, then the Fourier
transform is the only transform that makes sense.

In more general terms, a Heisenberg uncertainty relation of the form 

\Delta X \Delta Y = const

must hold if [X,Y]=const

Of course, in general [X,Y] is an operator, not a number. Can there be
3-way complementary structure? What if [X,[Y,Z]]=const? What does it
all mean? The mathematics of 3D rotations (or equivalently
Quarternions) has some interesting properties, which could be
important in all this.


Cheers



A/Prof Russell Standish  Director
High Performance Computing Support Unit, Phone 9385 6967, 8308 3119 (mobile)
UNSW SYDNEY 2052 Fax   9385 6965, 0425 253119 ()
Australia[EMAIL PROTECTED] 
Room 2075, Red Centrehttp://parallel.hpc.unsw.edu.au/rks
International prefix  +612, Interstate prefix 02





Re: Duplication Thought Experiment Involving Complementarity

2002-09-10 Thread Brent Meeker

On 10-Sep-02, George Levy wrote:

 Complementarity is a property of any two quantum operators
 that are related by the Fourier transform (x - id/dx). The
 proof is well known, and can be found (eg) in Shankar's
 book.


 Come on! This is circular reasoning. Conventional QM
 complementarity requires 2D Fourier. Therefore 2D Fourier
 must describe complementarity. True for conventional QM. I
 was talking about other MWs within the Plenitude. Could their
 complementarity be described by Hadamar transforms for
 example?

Observables come in complementary pairs (instead of triples or
something else) because the laws of physics are 2nd order
(partial) differential equations.  Hence a position has a
canonically conjugate momentum and vice versa.  The reason
they are related by a Fourier transform is that the action of
a wave in the Hamilton-Jacobi form of classical mechanics has
the products of the conjugate variables in the exponent.  See
Goldstein, section 10-8.

...

Brent Meeker
Pluralitas non sunt ponenda sine necessitate
  --- William of Ockham




Re: Duplication Thought Experiment Involving Complementarity

2002-09-10 Thread Russell Standish

Brent Meeker wrote:
 
 On 10-Sep-02, George Levy wrote:
 
  Complementarity is a property of any two quantum operators
  that are related by the Fourier transform (x - id/dx). The
  proof is well known, and can be found (eg) in Shankar's
  book.
 
 
  Come on! This is circular reasoning. Conventional QM
  complementarity requires 2D Fourier. Therefore 2D Fourier
  must describe complementarity. True for conventional QM. I
  was talking about other MWs within the Plenitude. Could their
  complementarity be described by Hadamar transforms for
  example?
 
 Observables come in complementary pairs (instead of triples or
 something else) because the laws of physics are 2nd order
 (partial) differential equations.  Hence a position has a
 canonically conjugate momentum and vice versa.  The reason
 they are related by a Fourier transform is that the action of
 a wave in the Hamilton-Jacobi form of classical mechanics has
 the products of the conjugate variables in the exponent.  See
 Goldstein, section 10-8.
 
 ...
 
 Brent Meeker
 Pluralitas non sunt ponenda sine necessitate
   --- William of Ockham
 

But that just begs the question of why classical dynamics is 2nd
order (or iow why Newtons 2nd law). Vic Stengar seems to have an
answer to this.

Indeed classical dynamics is 1st order in phase space (2nd order only
in real space). So it comes down to extra meaning attached to the
variable x  p.

Cheers


A/Prof Russell Standish  Director
High Performance Computing Support Unit, Phone 9385 6967, 8308 3119 (mobile)
UNSW SYDNEY 2052 Fax   9385 6965, 0425 253119 ()
Australia[EMAIL PROTECTED] 
Room 2075, Red Centrehttp://parallel.hpc.unsw.edu.au/rks
International prefix  +612, Interstate prefix 02





Re: Duplication Thought Experiment Involving Complementarity

2002-09-10 Thread Brent Meeker

On 10-Sep-02, Russell Standish wrote:
 Brent Meeker wrote:

 On 10-Sep-02, George Levy wrote:

 Complementarity is a property of any two quantum operators
 that are related by the Fourier transform (x - id/dx).
 The proof is well known, and can be found (eg) in
 Shankar's book.


 Come on! This is circular reasoning. Conventional QM
 complementarity requires 2D Fourier. Therefore 2D Fourier
 must describe complementarity. True for conventional QM. I
 was talking about other MWs within the Plenitude. Could
 their complementarity be described by Hadamar transforms
 for example?

 Observables come in complementary pairs (instead of triples
 or something else) because the laws of physics are 2nd order
 (partial) differential equations. Hence a position has a
 canonically conjugate momentum and vice versa. The reason
 they are related by a Fourier transform is that the action
 of a wave in the Hamilton-Jacobi form of classical mechanics
 has the products of the conjugate variables in the exponent.
 See Goldstein, section 10-8.

 ...

 Brent Meeker
 Pluralitas non sunt ponenda sine necessitate
  --- William of Ockham


 But that just begs the question of why classical dynamics is
 2nd order (or iow why Newtons 2nd law). Vic Stengar seems to
 have an answer to this.

Vic's working on a book, tentatively called Why There is
Something Rather Than Nothing in which he shows that all
fundamental physics, i.e. QM, GR, and the Standard Model, can
be derived from gauge+broken symmetry.  From that standpoint
physics is described by 2nd order PDE's because the two
symmetries we observe are space-time translation and
space-time rotation (i.e. Lorentz boosts).  Vic argues that
these are inherent symmetries of the void, but as to why there
aren't other symmetries I think must be left to empirical
determination.

I do urge you to join Vic's avoid-l mailing list.  I'm sure he
would appreciate your well informed comments.


Brent Meeker
Ms Schroedinger: What did you do to that poor cat? It looks
half  dead.
Erwin: I don't know. Ask Wigner's friend.