RE: Bruno's argument - Comp

2006-08-06 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

John M writes:

 Earlier we lived in a telephone central switchboard, further back in a 
 steam-engine. Not to mention the Turtle.
 The 'cat' specifies IMO ignorance without prejudice.

Very droll, very true! But what, then, must we do? Scientists come up with the 
best theory consistent with the evidence, with a willingness to revise the 
theory 
in the light of new evidence. They might not be quite as willing as they 
ideally 
should be, but that's just human nature, and they all come around to doing the 
right thing eventually. It would not be very helpful if we all thought, I know 
that 
whatever theory I come up with will almost certainly be proved wrong given 
enough 
time, so I won't bother coming up with a theory at all.

Stathis Papaioannou


  I recently read somebody's speculation that the reality we inhabit is may 
  be
  a quantum computer.   Presumably when we observe Schrodinger's cat
  simultaneously being killed and not killed, we are observing the quantum
  computer in action.
 
  Norman Samish
  ~
  - Original Message - 
  From: John M [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
  Sent: Thursday, August 03, 2006 2:05 PM
  Subject: Re: Bruno's argument - Comp
 
 
 
  To All:
  I know my questions below are beyond our comprehension, but we read (and
  write) so much about this idea that I feel compelled to ask:
 
  is there any idea why there would be 'comp'? our computers require juice
  to
  work and if unplugged they represent a very expensive paperweight.
 
  What kind of computing unit (universe? multiverse, or some other 
  satanic
  'verse') would run by itself without being supplied by something that
  moves
  it? I hate to ask about its program as well, whether it is an 
  intelligent
  design?
  Is it a pseudnym for some godlike mystery?
 
  Are we reinventing the religion?
 
  John Mikes
 
 
 
 
  

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RE: Does Heaven exist?

2006-08-06 Thread W. C.

From: Norman Samish

I look forward to seeing your math formulas/theorems etc. supporting the 
Perfect Universe.

Hi, Norman,

I am more interested in finding some way to make PU real.
Until now, PU is more like my dream.
Writing some math formulas/theorems etc. may just provide some mental 
satisfaction (of human being).
You may need to wait a long long time to see my math.

Your Perfect Universe sounds like the heaven that many true believers 
aspire to.  There can apparently be as many Heavens as there are Believers, 
since each believer is free to define the specifications of his particular 
Heaven.

It makes sense that PU or heaven is possible because there are infinite 
resources in this (infinite) universe.
Every perfect being can have what it needs perfectly (but not necessary to 
waste).

Maybe, if all possible realities exist (as many on this list suggest), 
everybody's heaven DOES exist - as long as it is possible.

I'm told that a lot of people on earth believe that their heaven is a 
place where qualified male humans would have some number of virgin women at 
their disposal.

I will avoid possible politics here. So I don't comment on specific heaven.
But all beings are perfect in my PU. So all beings are equal.

Is such a place possible?  I can't imagine that it is - but what I can 
imagine has little to do with the reality we inhabit.


Thanks.

WC.

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Re: Bruno's argument - Comp

2006-08-06 Thread 1Z


Norman Samish wrote:
 1Z,
 I don't know what you mean.

That is unfortunate, because as far as I am concerned everyhting
I am saying is obvious. (Have you read The fabric of Reality ?)

  Perhaps I can understand your statement, but
 only after I get answers to the following questions:
 1) What do you mean by Quantum computer?

A computer that exploits quantum superpositions to achieve parallelism.

 2) What do you mean by Quantum universe?

A universe (or multiverse) in which quantum physics is a true
description of reality.

 3) Why is a Quantum Computer only possible in a Quantum Universe?

It exploits quantum physics.

 4)  Why is Schrodinger's Cat possible in quantum universes  without
 computational assistance?

Superpositions are an implication of quantum mechanics. Schrodinger's
Cat
was mooted decades before anyone even thought of  quantum computaion.

 Norman

 - Original Message -
 From: 1Z [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: Everything List everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Saturday, August 05, 2006 2:43 PM
 Subject: Re: Bruno's argument - Comp


 
 
  Norman Samish wrote:
  I recently read somebody's speculation that the reality we inhabit may be
  a quantum computer.   Presumably when we observe Schrodinger's cat
  simultaneously being killed and not killed, we are observing the quantum
  computer in action.
 
  Quantum computers are only possible in quantum universes, and in quantum
 universes, S's C is possible without computational assistance.


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RE: Interested in thoughts on this excerpt from Martin Rees

2006-08-06 Thread Stathis Papaioannou







 Date: Fri, 4 Aug 2006 19:17:21 +1000
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Subject: Re: Interested in thoughts on this excerpt from Martin Rees
 
 
 This is one of those truly cracked ideas that is not wise to air in
 polite company. Nevertheless, it can be fun to play around with in
 this forum. I had a similarly cracked idea a few years ago about 1st
 person experienced magic, which we batted around a bit at the tiome
 without getting anywhere.
 
 The trouble I have with this idea is that I can't see the connection
 between OM measure and the sensation of passage of time. In contrast
 to your statement of nothing however, a lower measure OM will appear
 more complex - so we experience growth in knowledge as our measure
 decreases. Increasing measure OM's will correspond to memory
 erasure, in the sense of quantum erasure.
 
 Cheers
 
 On Sat, Aug 05, 2006 at 10:44:49PM +1000, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
  
  
  I have asked the question before, what do I experience if my measure 
  in the multiverse increases or decreases? My preferred answer, contra 
  the ASSA/ QTI skeptics, is nothing. However, the interesting observation 
  that our perception of time changes with age, so that an hour seems 
  subjectively much longer for a young child than for an older person, would 
  seem to correlate with decreasing measure as a person grows older. One 
  explanation for this could be that if there are more copies of us around 
  in the multiverse, we have more subjective experience per unit time. This 
  would mean that if we lived forever, the years then the centuries and 
  millenia 
  would fly past at a subjectively faster and faster rate as we age and our 
  measure continuously drops.
  
  I actually believe that a psychological explanation for this phenomenon is 
  more 
  likely correct (an hour is a greater proportion of your life if you are a 
  young child) 
  but it's an interesting idea.
  
  Stathis Papaioannou
  
  
   Date: Fri, 4 Aug 2006 02:10:53 +1000
   From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
   To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
   Subject: Re: Interested in thoughts on this excerpt from Martin Rees
   
   
   Someone called me to task for this posting (I forget who, and I've
   lost the posting now). I tried to formulate the notion I expressed
   here more precisely, and failed! So I never responded.
   
   What I had in mind was that future observer moment of my current one
   will at some point have a total measure diminishing at least as fast
   as an exponental function of OM age. This is simply a statement that
   it becomes increasingly improbable for humans to live longer than a
   certain age.
   
   Whilst individual OMs will have exponentially decreasing measure due
   to the linear increase in complexity as a function of universe age,
   total OM measure requires summing over all OMs of a given age (which
   can compensate). This total OM measure is a 3rd person type of
   quantity - equivalent to asking what is the probability of a conscious
   organism existing at universe age t. It seems plausible that this
   might diminish in some exponential or faster fashion after a few
   standard deviation beyond the mean time it takes to evolve
   consciousness, but I do not have any basis for making this claim. If
   we assume a normal distribution of times required for evolving
   consciousness, then the statement is true for example, but I'm wise
   enough to know that this assumption needs further justification. The
   distribution may be a meanless thing like a power law for example.
   
   So sorry if I piqued someones interest too much - but then we can leave
   this notion as a conjecture :)
   
   Cheers
   
   On Fri, Jul 28, 2006 at 12:07:37AM +1000, Russell Standish wrote:
Thanks for giving a digested explanation of the argument. This paper
was discussed briefly on A-Void a few weeks ago, but I must admit to
not following the argument too well, nor RTFA.

My comment on the observer moment issue, is that in a Multiverse, the
measure of older observer moments is less that younger ones. After a
certain point in time, the measure probably decreases exponentially or
faster, so there will be a mean observer moment age.

So contra all these old OMs dominating the calculation, and giving
rise to an expected value of Lambda close to zero, we should expect
only a finite contribution, leading to an expected finite value of
Lambda.

We don't know what the mean age for an observer moment should be, but
presumably one could argue anthropically that is around 10^{10}
years. What does this give for an expected value of Lambda?

Of course their argument does sound plausible for a single universe -
is this observational evidence in favour of a Multiverse?

Cheers
   
   -- 
   *PS: A number of people ask me 

RE: Interested in thoughts on this excerpt from Martin Rees

2006-08-06 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

Russell Standish writes:

 This is one of those truly cracked ideas that is not wise to air in
 polite company. Nevertheless, it can be fun to play around with in
 this forum. I had a similarly cracked idea a few years ago about 1st
 person experienced magic, which we batted around a bit at the tiome
 without getting anywhere.
 
 The trouble I have with this idea is that I can't see the connection
 between OM measure and the sensation of passage of time. In contrast
 to your statement of nothing however, a lower measure OM will appear
 more complex - so we experience growth in knowledge as our measure
 decreases. Increasing measure OM's will correspond to memory
 erasure, in the sense of quantum erasure.

My thought was that if there are twice as many copies of you running in 
parallel, 
you are in a sense cramming twice as much experience into a given objective 
time 
period, so maybe this stretches out the time period to seem twice as long. 
There 
is admittedly no good reason to accept that this is so (that's why it's a 
cracked 
idea, as you say!), and I would bet that it *isn't* so, but it's the only 
half-plausible 
subjective effect I can think of due to change in measure alone.

I believe that what you mean when you say that a lower measure OM will appear 
more complex is somewhat different to the scenario I had in mind: a controlled 
experiment in which measure can be turned up and down leaving everything else 
the same, such as having an AI running on several computers in perfect 
lockstep. 
(I realise this is not the same as changing measure in the multiverse, which 
would 
not lend itself so easily to experiment.) Would the AI notice anything if half 
the 
computers were turned off then on again? I think it would be impossible for the 
AI 
to notice that anything had changed without receiving external information. If 
I 
were the AI the only advantage I can think of in having multiple computers 
running 
is for backup in case some of them broke down; beyond that, I wouldn't care if 
there 
were one copy or a million copies of me running in parallel.

Stathis Papaioannou 
 
 On Sat, Aug 05, 2006 at 10:44:49PM +1000, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
  
  
  I have asked the question before, what do I experience if my measure 
  in the multiverse increases or decreases? My preferred answer, contra 
  the ASSA/ QTI skeptics, is nothing. However, the interesting observation 
  that our perception of time changes with age, so that an hour seems 
  subjectively much longer for a young child than for an older person, would 
  seem to correlate with decreasing measure as a person grows older. One 
  explanation for this could be that if there are more copies of us around 
  in the multiverse, we have more subjective experience per unit time. This 
  would mean that if we lived forever, the years then the centuries and 
  millenia 
  would fly past at a subjectively faster and faster rate as we age and our 
  measure continuously drops.
  
  I actually believe that a psychological explanation for this phenomenon is 
  more 
  likely correct (an hour is a greater proportion of your life if you are a 
  young child) 
  but it's an interesting idea.
  
  Stathis Papaioannou
  
  
   Date: Fri, 4 Aug 2006 02:10:53 +1000
   From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
   To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
   Subject: Re: Interested in thoughts on this excerpt from Martin Rees
   
   
   Someone called me to task for this posting (I forget who, and I've
   lost the posting now). I tried to formulate the notion I expressed
   here more precisely, and failed! So I never responded.
   
   What I had in mind was that future observer moment of my current one
   will at some point have a total measure diminishing at least as fast
   as an exponental function of OM age. This is simply a statement that
   it becomes increasingly improbable for humans to live longer than a
   certain age.
   
   Whilst individual OMs will have exponentially decreasing measure due
   to the linear increase in complexity as a function of universe age,
   total OM measure requires summing over all OMs of a given age (which
   can compensate). This total OM measure is a 3rd person type of
   quantity - equivalent to asking what is the probability of a conscious
   organism existing at universe age t. It seems plausible that this
   might diminish in some exponential or faster fashion after a few
   standard deviation beyond the mean time it takes to evolve
   consciousness, but I do not have any basis for making this claim. If
   we assume a normal distribution of times required for evolving
   consciousness, then the statement is true for example, but I'm wise
   enough to know that this assumption needs further justification. The
   distribution may be a meanless thing like a power law for example.
   
   So sorry if I piqued someones interest too much - but then we can leave
   this notion as a conjecture :)
   
   

Re: Bruno's argument - Comp

2006-08-06 Thread Norman Samish

Thanks - with your help plus Wikipedia I now have an hypothesis about your 
statement.  It seems to boil down to Schrodinger's Cat has nothing to do 
with quantum computers other than they both depend on quantum 
superpositions.   Fair enough.

When I read somebody's speculation that the reality we inhabit may be a 
quantum computer, it enlarged my concept of all possible realities to 
include all possible states of quantum superpositions.   In half of these 
S.C. is alive; in half it is dead.

Norman Samish
~~~`
- Original Message - 
From: 1Z [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Everything List everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Sunday, August 06, 2006 5:35 AM
Subject: Re: Bruno's argument - Comp




 Norman Samish wrote:
 1Z,
 I don't know what you mean.

 That is unfortunate, because as far as I am concerned everyhting
 I am saying is obvious. (Have you read The fabric of Reality ?)

  Perhaps I can understand your statement, but
 only after I get answers to the following questions:
 1) What do you mean by Quantum computer?

 A computer that exploits quantum superpositions to achieve parallelism.

 2) What do you mean by Quantum universe?

 A universe (or multiverse) in which quantum physics is a true
 description of reality.

 3) Why is a Quantum Computer only possible in a Quantum Universe?

 It exploits quantum physics.

 4)  Why is Schrodinger's Cat possible in quantum universes  without
 computational assistance?

 Superpositions are an implication of quantum mechanics. Schrodinger's
 Cat
 was mooted decades before anyone even thought of  quantum computaion.

 Norman

 - Original Message -
 From: 1Z [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: Everything List everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Saturday, August 05, 2006 2:43 PM
 Subject: Re: Bruno's argument - Comp


 
 
  Norman Samish wrote:
  I recently read somebody's speculation that the reality we inhabit may 
  be
  a quantum computer.   Presumably when we observe Schrodinger's cat
  simultaneously being killed and not killed, we are observing the 
  quantum
  computer in action.
 
  Quantum computers are only possible in quantum universes, and in quantum
 universes, S's C is possible without computational assistance. 


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Re: Bruno's argument - Comp

2006-08-06 Thread 1Z


Norman Samish wrote:
 Thanks - with your help plus Wikipedia I now have an hypothesis about your
 statement.  It seems to boil down to Schrodinger's Cat has nothing to do
 with quantum computers other than they both depend on quantum
 superpositions.

Correct.

 Fair enough.

 When I read somebody's speculation that the reality we inhabit may be a
 quantum computer, it enlarged my concept of all possible realities to
 include all possible states of quantum superpositions.   In half of these
 S.C. is alive; in half it is dead.

That's just standard MWI. BTW, you didn't answer my question about FoR.


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Re: Are First Person prime?

2006-08-06 Thread David Nyman

Bruno/ George

I thought I might offer the following analogy to help to clarify the
application and relevance of the distinctions I'm trying to make
vis-a-vis the different types of 'first person'.  I wouldn't want to
push it too far, but I think it has a certain formal similarity to the
points I've been trying to establish.

Suppose that I am a PC running Word and Excel at the same time.
Suppose also that in some way you were able to interrogate me (i.e. the
PC) during some cycles when I am running Word, and ask me - who are
you?.  Given that I could refer only to the data available to me 'as
Word', I could only reply: I am Word, of course!.  Alternatively, if
the interrogation occurred during those cycles when I was running
Excel, my response would have to be: I'm Excel.

Now this somewhat loose analogy makes the point that we have no
recourse but to refer to whatever data is accessible to us in
attempting to answer any query whatsoever, including those relating to
identity.  However, going back to the analogy, an observer might be
tempted to inform me, in my incarnations as PC-as-Word and PC-as-Excel,
that I should really say: I am a PC running both these applications
during different cycles under WindowsXP. So, in this limited domain,
'my' run-time instantiations of 'Word' and 'Excel' play the role of
FP1i, and the run-time PC-under-WindowsXP, that of FP1g.  The analogs
of these 'actors' - their descriptions in my narrative - would be
examples of 'FP2' : i.e. a *representation* of a first person, *not*
the unique 'runtime' FP1i.

Now of course we can say: But the PC itself is more fundamentally an
electronics hardware platform with a certain architecture.  Fine, then
the claim should be In that case 'I' am that platform with that
architecture.  But suppose we believe that the 'hardware' is an
emulation within comp?  Well, In that case 'I' am a comp emulation.
It's 'I' all the way down, as far as you care to go.  Whatever you
believe the 'fundamental level' to be, or even if you think there is no
such thing, that's what is substantively making the claim to be 'I', in
the global sense of 'FP1g'.  And, since individual first persons are
somewhat in the position of 'Word' and 'Excel', or for that matter 'the
PC' in the analogy, each 'FP1i' is making the same claim: I am the
context of a local capability and knowledge base that gives me access
to such-and-such information.

Comp/ QM/ MW etc. exist mutually as something of the nature of a
'superposition' - i.e. whatever exists does so in a unified manner that
we can only 'a posteriori' attempt to organise into schemas or
'levels'.  Consequently I feel justified in claiming that my ultimate
first personhood is founded in the whole not simply some part or level.
Further, IMO, this may be the only coherent way to understand the
arbitrariness of indexicality - that the individual 'I' is only a
delimited point-of-view arising from local structure, not an
independent ontological status.  Self-identification and the status of
'knower' are alike derived from locally-determined capabilities and
information 'in context', somewhat like that of 'Word' or Excel' in the
context of the PC in my analogy.

Lastly, I suppose that my personal motivation here really stems from my
sense that the questions 'why is there anything?' and 'why am I here?'
amount to the same thing.  That is to say: the 'something' isn't 'out
there' - i.e.in the way its analog is represented in the 'knowledge
base' - but 'in here'.

Does this help at all?

David


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Re: Bruno's argument - Comp

2006-08-06 Thread Norman Samish



I read Fabric of Reality several years ago, but didn't understand it 
well. I intuitivelyagree with Asher Peres that Deutsch's version of 
MWI too-flagrantly violatesOccam's Razor. Perhaps I should read it 
again.

I even attended a lecture by John Wheeler, David Deutsch's thesis 
advisor. He gave me the same sense of unease that FoR did.

While I have no better explanation for quantum mysteries,I 
remainagnostic."MWI's main conclusion is that the universe (or 
multiverse in this context) is composed of a quantum superposition of very many, 
possibly infinitely many, increasingly divergent, non-communicating parallel 
universes or quantum worlds." (Wikipedia)I also can't buy "wavefunction 
collapse." 

Perhaps some undiscovered phenomenon is responsible for quantum mysteries - 
e.g., maybe the explanation lies inone or moreof the ten dimensions 
that string theory requires. Maybe these undiscovered dimensions somehow 
allow the fabled paired photons to instantly communicate with each other over 
astronomical distances. This is a WAG (wild-ass guess) of course, but it's 
more believable to me than new universes being constantly generated.

However, I CAN see some logic to the idea that Tegmark introduced me to - 
the idea that, in infinite space, a multiverse exists containing all possible 
universes - and we inhabit one of them. I believe that, in infinite time 
and space, anything that can happen must happen, not only once but an infinite 
number of times.

I freely admit that there are a lot of things I can't understand, e.g. more 
than three physical dimensions, the concept of infinity, time without beginniing 
or end, and the like. The reason I lurk on this list is to try to 
gainunderstanding. I sit at the feet of brilliant thinkers and 
listen.Norman~~- Original 
Message - From: "1Z" [EMAIL PROTECTED]To: "Everything 
List" everything-list@googlegroups.comSent: Sunday, August 06, 2006 
11:06 AMSubject: Re: Bruno's argument - Comp  
 Norman Samish wrote: Thanks - with your help plus Wikipedia 
I now have an hypothesis about your statement. It seems to 
boil down to "Schrodinger's Cat has nothing to do with quantum 
computers other than they both depend on quantum 
superpositions."  Correct.  Fair 
enough. When I read somebody's speculation that the 
reality we inhabit may be a quantum computer, it enlarged my concept 
of all possible realities to include all possible states of quantum 
superpositions. In half of these S.C. is alive; in half 
it is dead.  That's just standard MWI. BTW, you didn't answer my 
question about FoR.
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Re: The Irreducibility of Consciousness

2006-08-06 Thread Brent Meeker

Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 John M writes (quoting SP):
 
 
St:
Are you suggesting that a brain with the same
pattern of neurons firing, but without the appropriate environmental
stimulus, would not have exactly the same conscious experience?

[JM]:
Show me, I am an experimentalist.  First show two brains with the same 
pattern of  (ALL!)   neuron firings. Two extracted identical firings in a 
superdupercomplex brain is meaningless.
Then, please, show me (experimentally) the non-identity of environmental 
impacts reaching 2 different brains from the unlimited interaction of the 
totality.
(I wrote already that I do not approve thought-experiments).
 
 
 Of course, you could not have both brains stimulated in the usual manner in 
 both environments because then they would not have identical patterns of 
 neural firing; you would have to artificially stimulate one of the brains in 
 exactly 
 the right manner to mimic the stimulation it would receive via its sense 
 organs. 
 That would be very difficult to achieve in a practical experiment, but the 
 question 
 is, *if* you could do this would you expect that the brains would be able to 
 guess 
 on the basis of their subjective experience alone which one was which? 
 
 Actually, natural experiments something like this occur in people going 
 through a 
 psychotic episode. Most people who experience auditory hallucinations find it 
 impossible to distinguish between the hallucination and the real thing: the 
 voices 
 sound *exactly* as it sounds when someone is talking to them, which is why 
 (if 
 they are that sort of person) they might assault a stranger on the train in 
 the belief 
 that they have insulted or threatened them, when the poor fellow has said 
 nothing 
 at all. I think this example alone is enough to show that it is possible to 
 have a 
 perception with cortical activity alone; you don't even need to artificially 
 stimulate 
 the auditory nerve.
 
 
St:
That would imply some sort of extra-sensory perception, and there is
no evidence for such a thing. It is perfectly consistent with all the facts
to say that consciousness results from patterns of neurons firing in the
brain, and that if the same neurons fired, the same experience would
result regardless of what actually caused those neurons to fire.

[JM]:
regardless also of the 'rest of the brain'? Would you pick one of the 
billions copmpleting the brainwork complexity and match it to a similar one 
in a different complexity?
But the more relevant question (and I mean it):
What would you identify as (your version) of consciousness that results 
from neuron-fiting consistent with all the facts?
 
 
 My neurons fire and I am conscious; if they didn't fire I wouldn't be 
 conscious, 
 and if they fired very differently to the way they are doing I would be 
 differently 
 conscious. That much, I think, is obvious. Maybe there is something *in 
 addition* 
 to the physical activity of our neurons which underpins consciousness, but at 
 the 
 moment it appears that the neurons are both necessary and sufficient, so you 
 would have to present some convincing evidence (experimental is always best, 
 as 
 you say, but theoretical will do) if you want to claim otherwise.
 
 
St:
As for consciousness being fundamentally irreducible, I agree
completely.

[JM]:
Consider it a singularity, a Ding an Sich? Your statement looks to me as 
referring to a thing. Not a process. Or rather a state? (Awareness??)
*
St:
It is a fact that when neurons fire in a particular way, a conscious 
experience results; possibly, complex enough electronic activity in a 
digital computer might also result in conscious experience, although we 
cannot be sure of that. But this does not mean that the conscious experience 
*is* the brain or computer activity, even if it could somehow be shown that 
the physical process is necessary and sufficient for the experience.

[JM]:
I hope you could share with us your version of that conscious experience 
as well, which could be assigned to a digital computer? What other 
activity may a digital computer have
beside electronic?
It is hard to show in 'parallel' observed phenopmena whether  one is 
'necessary' for the other, or just observervable in parallel? Maybe the 
other is necessary for the 'one'?
If you find that the 'physical' process (firing, or electronic) is 
SUFFICIENT then probably your definition is such that it allows such 
sufficiency.
I may question the complexity of the assigned situation
for such simplification,.
 
 
 I don't know that computers can be conscious, and I don't even know that 
 computers can emulate human-type intelligent behaviour. Proving the latter 
 lies in the domain of experimental science, while proving the former is 
 impossible,  
 although it is also impossible to *prove* that another person is conscious. 

I think you setting to high a standard for prove.  If you set the standard
  as in mathematical proof, then the proof is relative to the 

Re: Bruno's argument - Comp

2006-08-06 Thread Brent Meeker

Norman Samish wrote:
 I read Fabric of Reality several years ago, but didn't understand it 
 well.  I intuitively agree with Asher Peres that Deutsch's version of 
 MWI too-flagrantly violates Occam's Razor.  Perhaps I should read it 
 again.  
  
 I even attended a lecture by John Wheeler, David Deutsch's thesis 
 advisor.  He gave me the same sense of unease that FoR did.
  
 While I have no better explanation for quantum mysteries, I 
 remain agnostic.  MWI's main conclusion is that the universe (or 
 multiverse in this context) is composed of a quantum superposition of 
 very many, possibly infinitely many, increasingly divergent, 
 non-communicating parallel universes or quantum worlds. (Wikipedia)
 
 I also can't buy wavefunction collapse. 

If you don't buy MWI (or the more modestly name relative state version, 
which is what Everett called it) then you have to collapse the 
wavefunction some way.  Decoherence theory has shown that a density matrix 
for any instrument or observer is quickly diagonalized FAPP.  So if you can 
just ignored those 1e-100 cross-terms you're back to ordinary probabilities. 
  Then as Omnes' remarks, it's a probabilistic theory - which means it 
predicts one thing happens and the others don't.

Brent Meeker



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Re: Bruno's argument - Comp

2006-08-06 Thread John M

Stathis,
you (of all people) underestimate human optimism and self confidence. MY 
THEORY? the 'others' maybe, they become proven wrong and false, not mine!
Then again where is an acceptable evidence? to whom?
Ask Goedel, ask Popper, ask all people who 'think' differently.
Bruno has different evidence for his position in his reply to my question 
today than I had when I asked it.
Not even a (confirmed?) Pysicalexperiment is 'evidendce'.  wHO do you call 
a 'scientist'? the one who accepts an evidence, or  who does not?
Best wishes
John M
- Original Message - 
From: Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: John M everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Sunday, August 06, 2006 7:22 AM
Subject: RE: Bruno's argument - Comp



John M writes:

 Earlier we lived in a telephone central switchboard, further back in a
 steam-engine. Not to mention the Turtle.
 The 'cat' specifies IMO ignorance without prejudice.

Very droll, very true! But what, then, must we do? Scientists come up with 
the
best theory consistent with the evidence, with a willingness to revise the 
theory
in the light of new evidence. They might not be quite as willing as they 
ideally
should be, but that's just human nature, and they all come around to doing 
the
right thing eventually. It would not be very helpful if we all thought, I 
know that
whatever theory I come up with will almost certainly be proved wrong given 
enough
time, so I won't bother coming up with a theory at all.

Stathis Papaioannou


  I recently read somebody's speculation that the reality we inhabit is 
  may
  be
  a quantum computer.   Presumably when we observe Schrodinger's cat
  simultaneously being killed and not killed, we are observing the quantum
  computer in action.
 
  Norman Samish
  ~
  - Original Message - 
  From: John M [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
  Sent: Thursday, August 03, 2006 2:05 PM
  Subject: Re: Bruno's argument - Comp
 
 
 
  To All:
  I know my questions below are beyond our comprehension, but we read 
  (and
  write) so much about this idea that I feel compelled to ask:
 
  is there any idea why there would be 'comp'? our computers require 
  juice
  to
  work and if unplugged they represent a very expensive paperweight.
 
  What kind of computing unit (universe? multiverse, or some other
  satanic
  'verse') would run by itself without being supplied by something that
  moves
  it? I hate to ask about its program as well, whether it is an
  intelligent
  design?
  Is it a pseudnym for some godlike mystery?
 
  Are we reinventing the religion?
 
  John Mikes
 
 


 

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Re: Bruno's argument - Comp

2006-08-06 Thread John M

Apologies to the list and to Stathis especially!

I replied to Stathis - and lost the text - at least I thought so.
That happens in Yahoo-mail sometimes and so far I could not detect which 
'key' did I touch wrong?
So I wrote another one and mailed it all right.

Then in the mail I detected my 'original' and lost text, it was snatched 
away and mailed.

The two are pretty different.

Redface John
- Original Message - 
From: John M [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Sunday, August 06, 2006 8:12 AM
Subject: Re: Bruno's argument - Comp



 Stathis:
 I know that whatever theory I come up with will almost certainly be 
 proved
 wrong given enough
 time, so I won't bother coming up with a theory at all.
 Funny that you of all people come up with such a supposition so different
 from fundamental basic human nature!
 We all hope to be smarter than , And speculate.
 Even those scientists you refer to.
 Evidence? that is what I scrutinize. It is subject to the level of our
 ongoing epistemic enrichment and without later findings one settles with
 insufficient ones that become soon obsolete.
 I was challenged to propose technical levels 50 years ahead. It is
 impossible. I rather try to compose what and why of our present
 technological and theoretical status could  we NOT imagine 60 years 
 ago...it
 is entertaining.

 Man is optimist. Even myself with a cynical pessimism.

 John M


 - Original Message - 
 From: Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: John M everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Sunday, August 06, 2006 7:22 AM
 Subject: RE: Bruno's argument - Comp



 John M writes:

 Earlier we lived in a telephone central switchboard, further back in a
 steam-engine. Not to mention the Turtle.
 The 'cat' specifies IMO ignorance without prejudice.

 Very droll, very true! But what, then, must we do? Scientists come up with
 the
 best theory consistent with the evidence, with a willingness to revise the
 theory
 in the light of new evidence. They might not be quite as willing as they
 ideally
 should be, but that's just human nature, and they all come around to doing
 the
 right thing eventually. It would not be very helpful if we all thought, I
 know that
 whatever theory I come up with will almost certainly be proved wrong given
 enough
 time, so I won't bother coming up with a theory at all.

 Stathis Papaioannou


  I recently read somebody's speculation that the reality we inhabit is
  may
  be
  a quantum computer.   Presumably when we observe Schrodinger's cat
  simultaneously being killed and not killed, we are observing the 
  quantum
  computer in action.
 
  Norman Samish
  ~
  - Original Message - 
  From: John M [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
  Sent: Thursday, August 03, 2006 2:05 PM
  Subject: Re: Bruno's argument - Comp
 
 
 
  To All:
  I know my questions below are beyond our comprehension, but we read
  (and
  write) so much about this idea that I feel compelled to ask:
 
  is there any idea why there would be 'comp'? our computers require
  juice
  to
  work and if unplugged they represent a very expensive paperweight.
 
  What kind of computing unit (universe? multiverse, or some other
  satanic
  'verse') would run by itself without being supplied by something that
  moves
  it? I hate to ask about its program as well, whether it is an
  intelligent
  design?
  Is it a pseudnym for some godlike mystery?
 
  Are we reinventing the religion?
 
  John Mikes
 
 


 

 _
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Re: The Irreducibility of Consciousness

2006-08-06 Thread John M

Brent:
My idea was exactly what you thundered against. There is no adequate proof, 
science is a limited model-view, the quote from J, Neumann even more so and 
the court-proof is the compromise (called law) between conflicting interests 
in a society. Reasonable doubt relies on how stupid the contemplators are.
The 'model' you formulate and examine is  based on a limited view of already 
esta blished circle of relevance within those explanations  people sweated 
out based on inadequate observational methods, immature conditions  and 
thought limited by the appropriate era's epistemic cognitive inventory.
\Disregarding the 'rest' (maybe not even knowing about more at that time_).
I am not sitting in a complacent lukewarm water of a limited knowledge-base 
and cut my thinking accordingly - rather confess to my ignorance and TRY to 
comeup with better.
I am not alone in this, not too efficient either.

John M
- Original Message - 
From: Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Sunday, August 06, 2006 5:15 PM
Subject: Re: The Irreducibility of Consciousness



Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 John M writes (quoting SP):


St:
Are you suggesting that a brain with the same
pattern of neurons firing, but without the appropriate environmental
stimulus, would not have exactly the same conscious experience?

[JM]:
Show me, I am an experimentalist.  First show two brains with the same
pattern of  (ALL!)   neuron firings. Two extracted identical firings in a
superdupercomplex brain is meaningless.
Then, please, show me (experimentally) the non-identity of environmental
impacts reaching 2 different brains from the unlimited interaction of the
totality.
(I wrote already that I do not approve thought-experiments).


 Of course, you could not have both brains stimulated in the usual manner 
 in
 both environments because then they would not have identical patterns of
 neural firing; you would have to artificially stimulate one of the brains 
 in exactly
 the right manner to mimic the stimulation it would receive via its sense 
 organs.
 That would be very difficult to achieve in a practical experiment, but the 
 question
 is, *if* you could do this would you expect that the brains would be able 
 to guess
 on the basis of their subjective experience alone which one was which?

 Actually, natural experiments something like this occur in people going 
 through a
 psychotic episode. Most people who experience auditory hallucinations find 
 it
 impossible to distinguish between the hallucination and the real thing: 
 the voices
 sound *exactly* as it sounds when someone is talking to them, which is why 
 (if
 they are that sort of person) they might assault a stranger on the train 
 in the belief
 that they have insulted or threatened them, when the poor fellow has said 
 nothing
 at all. I think this example alone is enough to show that it is possible 
 to have a
 perception with cortical activity alone; you don't even need to 
 artificially stimulate
 the auditory nerve.


St:
That would imply some sort of extra-sensory perception, and there is
no evidence for such a thing. It is perfectly consistent with all the 
facts
to say that consciousness results from patterns of neurons firing in the
brain, and that if the same neurons fired, the same experience would
result regardless of what actually caused those neurons to fire.

[JM]:
regardless also of the 'rest of the brain'? Would you pick one of the
billions copmpleting the brainwork complexity and match it to a similar 
one
in a different complexity?
But the more relevant question (and I mean it):
What would you identify as (your version) of consciousness that results
from neuron-fiting consistent with all the facts?


 My neurons fire and I am conscious; if they didn't fire I wouldn't be 
 conscious,
 and if they fired very differently to the way they are doing I would be 
 differently
 conscious. That much, I think, is obvious. Maybe there is something *in 
 addition*
 to the physical activity of our neurons which underpins consciousness, but 
 at the
 moment it appears that the neurons are both necessary and sufficient, so 
 you
 would have to present some convincing evidence (experimental is always 
 best, as
 you say, but theoretical will do) if you want to claim otherwise.


St:
As for consciousness being fundamentally irreducible, I agree
completely.

[JM]:
Consider it a singularity, a Ding an Sich? Your statement looks to me as
referring to a thing. Not a process. Or rather a state? (Awareness??)
*
St:
It is a fact that when neurons fire in a particular way, a conscious
experience results; possibly, complex enough electronic activity in a
digital computer might also result in conscious experience, although we
cannot be sure of that. But this does not mean that the conscious 
experience
*is* the brain or computer activity, even if it could somehow be shown 
that
the physical process is necessary and sufficient for the 

Re: The Irreducibility of Consciousness

2006-08-06 Thread Brent Meeker

John M wrote:
 Brent:
 My idea was exactly what you thundered against. There is no adequate proof, 
 science is a limited model-view, the quote from J, Neumann even more so and 
 the court-proof is the compromise (called law) between conflicting interests 
 in a society. Reasonable doubt relies on how stupid the contemplators are.
 The 'model' you formulate and examine is  based on a limited view of already 
 esta blished circle of relevance within those explanations  people sweated 
 out based on inadequate observational methods, immature conditions  and 
 thought limited by the appropriate era's epistemic cognitive inventory.

That's a complicated sentence and I'm not sure what you mean - but I 
formulated no model.  I said that scientific (and common sense) theories 
*are models*.  They certainly are not confined to an already established 
circle...etc.  Otherwise all physics would still be Newtonian and there'd 
be no quantum mechanics and relativity, much less string theory and MWI.

 \Disregarding the 'rest' (maybe not even knowing about more at that time_).
 I am not sitting in a complacent lukewarm water of a limited knowledge-base 
 and cut my thinking accordingly - rather confess to my ignorance and TRY to 
 comeup with better.

So what have you come up with?  Is it not a model, but reality itself?

Brent Meeker


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RE: The moral dimension of simulation

2006-08-06 Thread Nick Prince

It could be that we are merely incidental to the purpose of the simulation.
In the game of life for example there are many interesting patterns which
come out of simple automata.  In the case of this game , AFAIK the only
purpose was to demonstrate the possibility of complexity from simplicity.

Nick Prince

-Original Message-
From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of David Nyman
Sent: 06 August 2006 19:43
To: Everything List
Subject: The moral dimension of simulation


I don't know whether these issues have been given an airing here, but
I have a couple of thoughts about whether we're really 'in the
Matrix', a la Nick Bostrom.

Firstly, a moral issue. At least at the level of public debate, in our
(apparent?) reality there is considerable sensitivity to interfering
with fundamental issues of human freedom and dignity, and of avoiding
where possible the infliction of unnecessary suffering, either to
humans or other sentient organisms.  It seems to me that if we are to
take seriously the idea that significant numbers of advanced
civilisations would 'simulate' us in the 'feelingful' way we
(or at least I) experience, that significant moral issues are raised.
These are not dissimilar to the paradoxes raised by the juxtaposition
of an all-loving and omnipotent God.  None of this is to claim a
knock-down argument, but nevertheless it places a constraint on the
kind of 'civilisation' that might undertake such an exercise,
especially in those scenarios that take it to be some sort of game or
entertainment.

Secondly, what sort of role are 'we' supposed to playing?  On the
one hand, we may simply be required to play a part 'intelligently',
or at least predictably, for the benefit of the 'real' players.  In
this case, would they need to go to the trouble of making us
'sentient'?  Or can we take this as evidence that the complexity
required for 'intelligence' simply gives rise to such sentience?

Thirdly, is part of the point that 'they' share 'our'
experiences?  If so, what does this say about the supposedly privileged
relation between an individual and her experience?  Or is it just that
they get a third-party 'read-out' of our experiences?  Well, again,
would it then be necessary for us to go through the whole messy
business 'consciously' for such reporting to occur?

It seems to me that the above, and similar, considerations may act to
constrain the likelihood of there being such simulations, their nature,
or our 'actually' being in one, but I'm unable to say to what degree.

Any thoughts?

David






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Re: Bruno's argument - Comp

2006-08-06 Thread 1Z

Norman Samish wrote:
 I read Fabric of Reality several years ago, but didn't understand it well.  I 
 intuitively agree with Asher Peres that Deutsch's version of MWI 
 too-flagrantly violates Occam's Razor.  Perhaps I should read it again.

This is diusputed, e.g. in http://www.hedweb.com/manworld.htm

Q21 Does many-worlds violate Ockham's Razor?
William of Ockham, 1285-1349(?) English philosopher and one of the
founders of logic, proposed a maxim for judging theories which says
that hypotheses should not be multiplied beyond necessity. This is
known as Ockham's razor and is interpreted, today, as meaning that to
account for any set of facts the simplest theories are to be preferred
over more complex ones. Many-worlds is viewed as unnecessarily complex,
by some, by requiring the existence of a multiplicity of worlds to
explain what we see, at any time, in just one world.

This is to mistake what is meant by complex. Here's an example.
Analysis of starlight reveals that starlight is very similar to faint
sunlight, both with spectroscopic absorption and emission lines.
Assuming the universality of physical law we are led to conclude that
other stars and worlds are scattered, in great numbers, across the
cosmos. The theory that the stars are distant suns is the simplest
theory and so to be preferred by Ockham's Razor to other geocentric
theories.

Similarly many-worlds is the simplest and most economical quantum
theory because it proposes that same laws of physics apply to animate
observers as has been observed for inanimate objects. The multiplicity
of worlds predicted by the theory is not a weakness of many-worlds, any
more than the multiplicity of stars are for astronomers, since the
non-interacting worlds emerge from a simpler theory.

(As an historical aside it is worth noting that Ockham's razor was also
falsely used to argue in favour of the older heliocentric theories
against Galileo's notion of the vastness of the cosmos. The notion of
vast empty interstellar spaces was too uneconomical to be believable to
the Medieval mind. Again they were confusing the notion of vastness
with complexity [15].)





 I even attended a lecture by John Wheeler, David Deutsch's thesis advisor.  
 He gave me the same sense of unease that FoR did.

 While I have no better explanation for quantum mysteries, I remain agnostic.  
 MWI's main conclusion is that the universe (or multiverse in this context) 
 is composed of a quantum superposition of very many, possibly infinitely 
 many, increasingly divergent, non-communicating parallel universes or quantum 
 worlds. (Wikipedia)

 I also can't buy wavefunction collapse.

That is unofortunate, because if you do not have collapse, you
have MW, and if you do nto have MW, you have collapse.

 Perhaps some undiscovered phenomenon is responsible for quantum mysteries - 
 e.g., maybe the explanation lies in one or more of the ten dimensions that 
 string theory requires.

What is responsible for quantum phenomena is the way the universe
works.
What needs explaining is how the appearance of a classical
world-re-emerges.


   Maybe these undiscovered dimensions somehow allow the fabled paired photons 
 to instantly communicate with each other over astronomical distances.  This 
 is a WAG (wild-ass guess) of course, but it's more believable to me than new 
 universes being constantly generated.

This is already explained: what allows them to communicate is the
fact that they occupy an infinitely-dimensional Hilbert space. What
needs
explaining is how that ends up looking like 3D classical/relativistic
space.

 However, I CAN see some logic to the idea that Tegmark introduced me to - the 
 idea that, in infinite space, a multiverse exists containing all possible 
 universes - and we inhabit one of them.

Then the quantum universe will be one of them. But why shouldn't it be
the only one ?

  I believe that, in infinite time and space, anything that can happen must 
 happen, not only once but an infinite number of times.


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Re: The moral dimension of simulation

2006-08-06 Thread David Nyman

But your observation goes to the heart of my question.  If we were
indeed 'merely incidental' (from whose perspective?) then what would
this say about the ethical position of the simulaters?  Further, if we
are merely playing the role of 'simple automata' then what is the
purpose (from the simulaters' viewpoint) of our *conscious* fears,
pains, loves, life struggle, and so forth?  Are these just an
unavoidable and unimportant (except to us) 'epiphenomenon' of the
simulation method?  Or are they what you mean by an 'interesting
pattern'?  Are we to take our creators' position as being 'superior' to
ours and if so what does this imply for our own (periodic) moral
delicacy about the rights and feelings of others - should we perhaps
view this as mere naivety or lack of intelligence in the light of our
masters' indifference to ours?

These are the issues I'm attempting to raise in the context of the
'simulation hypothesis'.  Of course, there's an aspect of this that
recapitulates the struggle throughout history to establish humane moral
criteria in the face of various arbitrary and omnipotent god-figures,
or for that matter 'blind necessity'.  Even in the teeth of your
creator, you are not forced to accept the justice of his position, even
as you bow to his overwhelming force, as Job shows us.

David


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Re: Interested in thoughts on this excerpt from Martin Rees

2006-08-06 Thread Russell Standish

On Sun, Aug 06, 2006 at 11:59:42PM +1000, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 My thought was that if there are twice as many copies of you running in 
 parallel, 
 you are in a sense cramming twice as much experience into a given objective 
 time 
 period, so maybe this stretches out the time period to seem twice as long. 
 There 
 is admittedly no good reason to accept that this is so (that's why it's a 
 cracked 
 idea, as you say!), and I would bet that it *isn't* so, but it's the only 
 half-plausible 
 subjective effect I can think of due to change in measure alone.
 
 I believe that what you mean when you say that a lower measure OM will appear 
 more complex is somewhat different to the scenario I had in mind: a 
 controlled 
 experiment in which measure can be turned up and down leaving everything else 
 the same, such as having an AI running on several computers in perfect 
 lockstep. 
 (I realise this is not the same as changing measure in the multiverse, which 
 would 
 not lend itself so easily to experiment.) Would the AI notice anything if 
 half the 
 computers were turned off then on again? I think it would be impossible for 
 the AI 
 to notice that anything had changed without receiving external information. 
 If I 
 were the AI the only advantage I can think of in having multiple computers 
 running 
 is for backup in case some of them broke down; beyond that, I wouldn't care 
 if there 
 were one copy or a million copies of me running in parallel.
 
 Stathis Papaioannou 

This thought experiment has been discussed a few times in this
list. I agree with you that one wouldn't expect there to be any
difference in subjective experience, but more than that wrt Bruno's
work, assuming COMP  (which you have to anyway to consider the thought
experiment), there is actually no way to change the measure of a
particular computation - computations exist in Platonia wuth
presumably some measure (measure is fixed in my approach by the
actions of the observer, but others do not necessarily have an answer
to what the measure is). That is why Bruno can eliminate the concrete
universe hypothesis altogether.

Cheers

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virus. It is an electronic signature, that may be used to verify this
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may safely ignore this attachment.


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RE: Interested in thoughts on this excerpt from Martin Rees

2006-08-06 Thread W. C.

From: Bruno Marchal
...
But it is easy to explain that this is already a simple consequence  of 
comp. Any piece of matter is the result of a sum on an infinity of  
interfering computations: there is no reason to expect this to be  
clonable without cloning the whole UD, but this would not change any  
internal measures (by Church thesis and machine independence).
...

I remember you said comp can be tested experimentally due to others 
consequences (like the observable interference among many computations, 
etc.).
Can you provide more details on how to do the experiment to see matter is 
the result of a sum on an infinity of  interfering computations???

Thanks.

WC.

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RE: Bruno's argument - Comp

2006-08-06 Thread W. C.

From: Brent Meeker

I don't think it's possible, because perfect is subjective.  Perfect for
the lion is bad for the antelope.


Such problem doesn't exist in PU.
In PU, there is no food chain like A eats B; B eats C; C eats D ... etc..
Perfect beings (both living and non-living) mean no unhappiness (you don't 
feel happy when you are eaten, right?).
Why living beings need to eat?
People with common intelligence can easily *imagine* (or dream) what a PU 
will be.
The difficult thing is how to make it.
(The rule is always simple: If I can't make it, it's just dream.)

Thanks.

WC.

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RE: The moral dimension of simulation

2006-08-06 Thread Stathis Papaioannou

David Nyman writes:

 I don't know whether these issues have been given an airing here, but
 I have a couple of thoughts about whether we're really 'in the
 Matrix', a la Nick Bostrom.
 
 Firstly, a moral issue. At least at the level of public debate, in our
 (apparent?) reality there is considerable sensitivity to interfering
 with fundamental issues of human freedom and dignity, and of avoiding
 where possible the infliction of unnecessary suffering, either to
 humans or other sentient organisms.  It seems to me that if we are to
 take seriously the idea that significant numbers of advanced
 civilisations would 'simulate' us in the 'feelingful' way we
 (or at least I) experience, that significant moral issues are raised.
 These are not dissimilar to the paradoxes raised by the juxtaposition
 of an all-loving and omnipotent God.  None of this is to claim a
 knock-down argument, but nevertheless it places a constraint on the
 kind of 'civilisation' that might undertake such an exercise,
 especially in those scenarios that take it to be some sort of game or
 entertainment.

You're holding the beings running the simulation to awfully high standards. 
Humans have always persecuted their own kind, let alone other species, 
and have always managed to find rationalisations to explain why it isn't 
really bad. Even if technologically superior alien societies have similar 
ethics to our own, by no means a given, what if our universe is being 
simulated by their equivalent of a psychopath, or even a teenager in his 
bedroom?

 Secondly, what sort of role are 'we' supposed to playing?  On the
 one hand, we may simply be required to play a part 'intelligently',
 or at least predictably, for the benefit of the 'real' players.  In
 this case, would they need to go to the trouble of making us
 'sentient'?  Or can we take this as evidence that the complexity
 required for 'intelligence' simply gives rise to such sentience?

I'd say that our sentience is a side-effect of our intelligence. Even if we 
are part of the simulation, the simulation seems to consistently follow 
evolutionary theory, and how or why would sentience develop if it were 
possible to have the same behaviour without it? I think this is a convincing 
argument against the existence of intelligent zombies.

 Thirdly, is part of the point that 'they' share 'our'
 experiences?  If so, what does this say about the supposedly privileged
 relation between an individual and her experience?  Or is it just that
 they get a third-party 'read-out' of our experiences?  Well, again,
 would it then be necessary for us to go through the whole messy
 business 'consciously' for such reporting to occur?

Another reason why it appears that consciousness is a necessary side-effect 
of human level intelligent behaviour.

 It seems to me that the above, and similar, considerations may act to
 constrain the likelihood of there being such simulations, their nature,
 or our 'actually' being in one, but I'm unable to say to what degree.

Perhaps it says something about the nature of the simulation's creators, 
but I don't see that it says anything about the probability that we are 
living in one.

Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Are First Person prime?

2006-08-06 Thread George Levy




Bruno Marchal wrote:

   Would it be possible to map your three axiomatic lines
replacing "knowable" by "think" and "true" by "exist." ...

  
See my conversation with 1Z (Peter D. Jones). I will define "exist" by
" "exist" is true". 
  Then we have:

 1 If p thinks then p exists;

  
This does not make sense at all, I prefer to say honestly. It is not
the proposition p which thinks, and I don't understand what would it
means that a proposition exists. 
I dont' really see any problem if we think of a conscious entity just
like a proposition as information. Proposition p is information which
can be either true or false. A conscious entity is also information. In
this case, if the information is true then the entity exists.
I guess you are perhaps saying here
that If a Machine(entity) thinks then it exists. Then OK. But as you
know I don't believe the reverse is true. In particular I belief that
the square root of two exist (perhaps under the form of a total
computable function), but I would not say that the square root of two
thinks.
The English language is treacherous. we have to be careful when we use
the word "exist." I think there are several kinds of existence. In any
case to assert that the square root of two exists is assigning to the
square root of two an existence independent of any observer, thereby
negating the primacy of first person.

 I do think that the multiverse even got rich but devoid
of
consciousness (immaterial) comp-branches.
  
  
 2 If p thinks then it is thinkable that p thinks;

  
All right with the interpretation that "p" is some entity, not a
proposition. Perhaps you are identifying machines and propositions?
This can be done  with the Fi and Wi , and it needs many
cautions.
  

Yes I am saying that machines, propositions, databases, programs, and
conscious minds are different words for the same thing: information.
Thus information can be true, false or unknown.

  
 3 If it is thinkable that p entails q, then if p
thinks then q thinks.
  

  

One of the problem lies with the "it" word as in: "if 'it' is knowable"
or "If 'it' is thinkable". What or who is "it?" Here again the English
or French languages can be treacherous.


  
 1 If p thinks then p exists; (This maps nicely with
Descartes as
stated from a third person)
  
2 If p thinks then p think that p thinks; (This is nice reflective
statement essential to consciousness)
  
3 If p think that p entails q, then if p thinks then q thinks. (The
phrase "p entails q" reminds me vaguely of the Anthropic principle. I
am not sure what to make of this. My children think???)
  

  
Your way of talking is a bit confusing as you seem to see by yourself
:)
  

The first two statements are relatively easy to understand. The first
one is more or less what Descartes said. The second one is a reflective
form probably necessary for consciousness. 
The third statement taken seriously is intringing. If entity p thinks
that entity q is necessary for p's existence, then if p thinks then q
thinks. In other words all necessary conditions for my own existence
form a conscious entity. This is weird. It is as if I had my own
personal Personal God or guardian angel.

George

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Re: Bruno's argument - Comp

2006-08-06 Thread Brent Meeker

W. C. wrote:
From: Brent Meeker
 
 
I don't think it's possible, because perfect is subjective.  Perfect for
the lion is bad for the antelope.

 
 
 Such problem doesn't exist in PU.
 In PU, there is no food chain like A eats B; B eats C; C eats D ... etc..
 Perfect beings (both living and non-living) mean no unhappiness (you don't 
 feel happy when you are eaten, right?).
 Why living beings need to eat?

But I like to eat.  I like to eat steak.  A world in which I can't eat steak 
is not perfect for me.

 People with common intelligence can easily *imagine* (or dream) what a PU 
 will be.

I guess I have uncommon intelligence :-)  since I can't imagine what a PU 
would be.  I can't even imagine exactly what would be a perfect universe for 
me.  Do I want more security...or more adventure?  Sure I want to 
suceed...but maybe not too easily.  Do I really need to be the world's 
greatest tennis, chess, and billiards player?

Brent Meeker


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