Re: A crazy thoughts about structure of Electron.

2012-05-09 Thread socra...@bezeqint.net


 Electron’s fine structure constant.
=.
It is interesting to understand the Sommerfeld  formula:
 a= e^2 / h*c, where {a} is  fine structure constant: 1/137
Feynman  expressed  (a ) quantity  as
 ‘ by the god given damnation to all physicists ‘.
But the fine structure constant is not independent quantity,
it is only part of formula of an electron: e^2=h*ca .
The constant {a} is only one of three constants which
belong to the formula of electron: e^2=h*ca.
(a), (c), (h*) are three constants which created the electron.
And if we don’t know (a) then we don’t know what electron is.
Therefore in the internet is possible to find 100 different models
 of electron. For example.
The book What is the Electron?
Volodimir Simulik
Montreal, Canada.  2005. /
In this book:
‘ More than ten different models of the electron are presented here.
(!!!)
 More than twenty models are discussed briefly. (!!!)
Thus, the book gives a complete picture of contemporary theoretical
 thinking (traditional and new) about the physics of the electron.’

ftp://210.45.114.81/physics/%CA%E9%BC%AE/What%20Is%20the%20Electron%20by%20Volodimir%20Simulik%20.pdf

All of these models are problematical.
We can read hundreds books about philosophy of physics.
But how can we trust them if we don’t know what electron is.
And somebody wrote:
 If  I well remember Einstein once said about particle physics:
why do we study some many particles?
 Understand really what is an electron would be enough.
. . .
‘ Finding the structure of the electron will be the key
 to finding the origin of the natural laws.’
=.
By my peasant logic at first it is better to understand
the closest and simplest particle photon /electron and
then to study the far away spaces and another particles.
=.
Best withes.
Israel Sadovnik  Socratus

==.

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Re: The Brain Minds Whether We Believe in Free Will or Not

2012-05-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 May 2012, at 20:09, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


On 07.05.2012 21:49 meekerdb said the following:

On 5/7/2012 12:09 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

On 07.05.2012 19:52 John Clark said the following:
On Sun, May 6, 2012 at 1:51 PM, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  
wrote:



 To me the logic of trinity is perverse in the same extent as  
quantum

mechanics.



Perverse it may be but it's not my business to judge what quantum
mechanics
does in private when nobody is looking, that's up to quantum
mechanics and
the electron, but the point is that love it or hate it the logic of
quantum
mechanics works, it makes correct predictions on how the world  
works

and if
you don't like it complain to the universe not me. But the logic  
of the

trinity does nothing and is just brain dead dumb.

John K Clark



You are wrong. With the trinity logic you can find for example an
answer why human language allows us to describe events that has
happened long before the life has been created.


A remarkable discovery. The ancient Egyptians and Babylonians (and  
the
present day Muslims) were unable to describe events before life on  
Earth

(but maybe there was life elsewhere?). Or maybe you just refer to ex
falso quodlibet, so by logic 1=3 implies anything at all.

Brent


For the development of science, it is necessary to have a believe  
that equations discovered by a human mind could be used for the  
whole history of Universe. At that time, this belief came from  
trinity.


The logic of trinity is more complex, it concerns that words can  
explain Nature. I will report on this more, when I will work out  
Collingwood's An Essay on Metaphysics. Roughly speaking In the  
Beginning was the Word. The trinity, by the way, is not the  
invention of Christianity, it comes from ancient times.


Yes. It is common to basically all Greek theologies, and is prominent  
in Plotinus. But it appears also in India, and in very old mythologies  
(babylonian? Egyptians, Sumerians, ... I should do research on this).


And it appears quickly when a Löbian machine looks inward, under the  
form of the discovery of the different logic for truth (the outer  
god), provability (the intellect, the third person) and true  
provability (the first person, the inner god, the universal soul).


Now, to say 1 =  3, can only be a poetical metaphor. It is not a  
counter-example to the arithmetical laws. I hope this is obvious for  
everybody. 0 would have to successors.


Bruno





You have mentioned that you have another explanation why neuron nets  
not only obey the physical laws but they also can comprehend the  
physical laws. Could you please sketch it?


Evgenii

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Re: The Brain Minds Whether We Believe in Free Will or Not

2012-05-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 May 2012, at 20:17, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


On 07.05.2012 22:21 Craig Weinberg said the following:

On May 7, 3:37 pm, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:


...



Sure science grew out of Christianity, out of the decay and  
fragmentation of Christianity.
When Christianity was strong and in control is what we call The  
Dark Ages. Now that it
is no longer in control and the Western world relies on the  
technology of science,

Christian apologists are writing revisionist histories.


I agree, organized religion has been a catastrophe for the world, and
it still is, but that doesn't change the historical emergence of
science from spiritual contemplation.


I would suggest you to consider Soviet Union under Stalin when  
military atheists took the power over. I guess that the absolute  
number of victims was even more.


Just one examples. Nikolai Vavilov - a famous biologist working in  
genetics (compare his fate with that of Copernicus and Galileo)


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nikolai_Vavilov

Late 1930s - Lysenko, who has conceived a hatred for genetics is put  
in charge of all of Soviet agriculture
1940 - arrested for allegedly wrecking Soviet agriculture; delivered  
more than a hundred hours of lectures on science while in prison
1943 - died imprisoned and suffering from dystrophia (faulty  
nutrition of muscles, leading to paralysis), in the Saratov prison.


But this confirms that, once institutionalized, religion creates lies  
and suffering. Materialism is no exception. For a platonist, or  
neoplatonist, or neoeneoplatonist, atheism is a tiny variant of  
christianism. Both are tiny variant of Aristotelianism.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: The Brain Minds Whether We Believe in Free Will or Not

2012-05-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 May 2012, at 21:41, meekerdb wrote:


On 5/8/2012 12:04 PM, Craig Weinberg wrote:


On May 8, 2:17 pm, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:

On 07.05.2012 22:21 Craig Weinberg said the following:


On May 7, 3:37 pm, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:

...



Sure science grew out of Christianity, out of the decay and  
fragmentation of Christianity.
When Christianity was strong and in control is what we call The  
Dark Ages. Now that it
is no longer in control and the Western world relies on the  
technology of science,

Christian apologists are writing revisionist histories.
I agree, organized religion has been a catastrophe for the world,  
and

it still is, but that doesn't change the historical emergence of
science from spiritual contemplation.
I would suggest you to consider Soviet Union under Stalin when  
military

atheists took the power over. I guess that the absolute number of
victims was even more.

Just one examples. Nikolai Vavilov - a famous biologist working in
genetics (compare his fate with that of Copernicus and Galileo)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nikolai_Vavilov

Late 1930s - Lysenko, who has conceived a hatred for genetics is  
put in

charge of all of Soviet agriculture
1940 - arrested for allegedly wrecking Soviet agriculture; delivered
more than a hundred hours of lectures on science while in prison
1943 - died imprisoned and suffering from dystrophia (faulty  
nutrition

of muscles, leading to paralysis), in the Saratov prison.


I don't think we can say that was caused by atheism though. Soviet
communism was still atheistic after Stalin, wasn't it? There are
secular authorities in power in other countries where there has not
been any genocidal consequences. It seems like there have been and
continue to be bloody crusades and inquisitions in the name of
religion specifically that we haven't really seen associated with
movements for the sake of atheism.

Craig



Any world view that attracts 'true believers' and promises 'a better  
world' can be co-opted for political power.  Humans are social  
animals and like to belong to greater organizations.  This is  
useful, but like most useful things, also dangerous.  Science tends  
to avoid this because it institutionalizes skeptical testing.


I don't think so. You cannot institutionalize skeptical testing, or  
you will kill skepticism. I know examples. You can encourage it by  
practice, but once institutionalized, it stop working.


Bruno




Brent
Religion is the sigh of the oppressed creature, the heart of a  
heartless world, just as it is the spirit of a spiritless situation.  
It is the opium of the people.

   --- Karl Marx

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 May 2012, at 21:46, John Mikes wrote:


Ricardo:
good text! I may add to it:
Who created Nothing? - of course: Nobody. (The ancient joke of  
Odysseus towards Polyphemos: 'Nobody' has hurt me).


Just one thing: if it contains (includes) EMPTY SPACE, it includes  
space, it is not nothing. And please, do not forget about my adage  
in the previous post that limits (borders) are similarly not  
includable into nothing, so it must be an infinite - well - nothing.
It still may contain things we have no knowledge about and in such  
case it is NOT nothing. We just are ignorant.



Also, I can make a critic to 'nothing' or 'everything' similar to my  
critics of how Stephen use the term existence. It is a word, and it  
can belong to a theory only if there is an axiomatic for it, or a semi- 
axiomatic. You have to be able to give some sense of some thing to  
define or point on no-thing. At the metalevel, nothing and  
everything are coextensive.


Bruno






JM



On Sun, May 6, 2012 at 1:06 PM, R AM ramra...@gmail.com wrote:
Some thoughts about nothing:

- If nothing has no properties, and a limitation is considered a  
property, then nothing cannot have any limitations, including the  
limitation of generating something. Therefore, something may  
come from nothing.


- Given that something exists, it is possible that something exists  
(obviously). The later would be true even if nothing was the case.  
Therefore, we should envision the state of nothing co-existing  
with the possibility of something existing, which is rather bizarre.


- Why should nothing be the default state? I think this is based  
on the intuition that nothing would require no explanation,  
whereas something requires an explanation. However, given that the  
possibility of something existing is necessarily true, an  
explanation would be required for why there is nothing instead of  
something.


- There are many ways something can exist, but just one of nothing  
existing. Therefore, nothing is less likely :-)


- I think the intuition that nothing requires less explanation  
than the universe we observe is based on a generalization of the  
idea of classical empty space. However, this intuition is based on  
what we know about *this* universe (i.e. empty space is simpler than  
things existing in it). But why this intuition about *our* reality  
should be extrapolated to metaphysics?


- I think that the important question is why this universe instead  
of any other universe? (including nothing).


Ricardo.

On Sun, May 6, 2012 at 6:24 PM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com  
wrote:

On Sat, May 5, 2012  John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:

 Is it so hard to understand a word?

Yes, the word nothing keeps evolving. Until about a hundred years  
ago nothing just meant a vacuum, space empty of any matter; then a  
few years later the meaning was expanded to include lacking any  
energy too, then still later it meant also not having space, and  
then it meant not even having time. Something that is lacking matter  
energy time and space may not be the purest form of nothing but it  
is, you must admit, a pretty pitiful thing, and if science can  
explain (and someday it very well may be able to) how our world with  
all it's beautiful complexity came to be from such modest beginnings  
then that would not be a bad days work, and to call such activities  
incredibly shallow as some on this list have is just idiotic.


 N O T H I N G  -  is not a set of anything, no potential

Then the question can something come from nothing? has a obvious  
and extremely dull answer.


 I wrote once a little silly 'ode' about ontology. I started:
 In the beginning there was Nothingness.
 And when Nothingness realised it's nothingness
 It turned into Somethingness

Then your version of nothing had something, the potential to produce  
something. I also note the use of the word when, thus time, which  
is something, existed in your nothing universe as well as potential.


  John K Clark



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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 May 2012, at 02:25, Pierz wrote:




There is an interesting point here, although probably not what you  
intended. What you say is true, you cannot trace it all the way  
back to absolute nothing, because there is no reverse physical  
process that transforms something into nothing (at least, not  
into absolute nothing). Or equivalently, there is no physical  
process that transforms absolute nothing into something. But if  
that is the case, why are you so sure that nothing must have come  
before?


You must have misread me. I am anything but sure nothing must have  
come before. Indeed, my whole point is that something from nothing -  
genuine nothing - is a nonsense. You can't bridge the hgap between  
existence and non existence by any causal process. I think that's  
obvious, and we must accept that the universe simply 'is'.


We must accept that we have to assume something exist. Not necessarily  
a (physical) universe. With comp there is no physical universe, but we  
can explain why we believe in it from numbers. But we have to assume  
numbers, which are not nothing.
In all case, we need to assume some basic theory, and it starts from  
some basic bet on a reality.






As for the remark about nothingness having only one way of being  
and there being a lot more ways of existing, it's cute, but it's  
sophistry. Non-being is not a countable way of being. It's the  
absence of being - obviously - so can't be presented as one among  
a myriad of possible configurations of the universe.


I agree nothing is not a configuration of things, but I think it  
could be considered as one element belonging to an abstract space.  
Let's consider this universe and the abstract operation of  
removing things. We can remove the Sun, Andromeda, etc. Nothing  
is what is left after removing all things (including space,  
time, ...). It's one among many. It's not that different from 0  
being a natural number or the empty set being a set.


An empty set is not the absence of a set. But to take another angle  
on it: consider what you mean by removing these objects. It's merely  
something you're imagining, it does not correspond to any real  
process. In reality, energy and matter transform, they are not  
created or destroyed. You can't simply imagine subtracting one  
universe from the universe and getting nothing then say, See, I can  
get nothing from a universe by subtracting it from itself, so I can  
get a universe from nothing by adding it back in! You're just  
creating some imagined bridge between non-existence and existence  
when that is in fact the whole point of the dilemma. You say  
existence is more likely than nonexistence based on this imaginary  
subtraction/addition, but think about the meaning of likely. What  
is the set you're sampling from? All possible states of existence  
including the absence of anything - the empty set. So you've already  
'created' the universe of universes as it were. Why is there a set  
to sample from to allow there to be any likelihood of one or the  
other state of being? That is the crux of the issue.


There are different way to generate every sets from the empty set,  
like taking its unary intersection in classical logic, or by using the  
reflexion schema. In all case, the nothing is in the mind of some  
observer' or 'thinker'. Oh, surely God can create some thing from  
nothing, but then you need a God, which can hardly be 'nothing', in  
that case.


Bruno






Ricardo.


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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 May 2012, at 02:36, Pierz wrote:



The problem is that physicists have not yet succeed in marrying QM  
and GR, which is needed to get a quantum theory of space-time. You  
can bet on strings or on loop gravity though, or on the Dewitt- 
Wheeler equation, which, actually make physical time vanishing  
completely from the big picture. It is an internal parameter only.


Yes, none of which I pretend to understand any more than any guy who  
reads all the popular expositions of such theories. But it seems  
highly dubious to me for Krauss to even present a theory that  
pretends to explain something as fundamental as something from  
nothing given the absence of a QM-GR unification. After all, as good  
as QM and GR are at predicting stuff in their domains, we know that  
neither is right! It's an overreach.


It is different for the UD. Its existence is a theorem in any theory  
of everything, like this one:


classical logic +
0 ≠ s(x)
s(x) = s(y) - x = y
x+0 = x
x+s(y) = s(x+y)
x*0=0
x*s(y)=(x*y)+x

or in this one:

Kxy = x
Sxyz = xz(yz)

Yeah OK fine, so maybe I'm one turtle too high! Let's just say  
arithemetic then. Why does it exist? Because.


In this case, we can explain and prove that we cannot explain them  
from less. You provably need some understanding of the numbers to get  
them. Some people thought we can explain or derive natural numbers  
from logic, but this has failed, and eventually we can use logic to  
explain that no theory which does not assume the numbers (or something  
equivalent) can derive the numbers.


To be sure, you can derive the numlbers from Kxy = x and Sxyz =  
xz(yz), like you can derive the axiom of arithmetic (0≠s(x), ...)  
from Kxy = x and Sxyz = xz(yz). They are equivalent (at some  
ontological level).


This makes arithmetic (or Turing equivalent) a nice starting place. In  
that case you can derive at least all dreams, and without them, you  
can derive none of them.


So in that case, you are provably right. Why does number exists?  
because ... if they don't exist you would not been able to ask that  
question. And why do you ask?

Numbers are truly mysterious. Provably mysterious.

This is not entirely obvious. At first sight, it looks like numbers  
are logical, but that intuition is false.


Bruno

PS. You might try to make better quotes.






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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread R AM
On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 2:25 AM, Pierz pier...@gmail.com wrote:


 You must have misread me. I am anything but sure nothing must have come
 before.


Yes, probably I did.


 Indeed, my whole point is that something from nothing - genuine nothing -
 is a nonsense. You can't bridge the hgap between existence and non
 existence by any causal process. I think that's obvious, and we must accept
 that the universe simply 'is'.


I agree.


 An empty set is not the absence of a set.


A set is a collection of elements and the empty set is the absence of
elements (nothing).


 But to take another angle on it: consider what you mean by removing these
 objects. It's merely something you're imagining, it does not correspond to
 any real process. In reality, energy and matter transform, they are not
 created or destroyed.


I agree, it is not a physical process. But I am not proposing this
combinatorics as a way to create something from nothing, but just to show
that there are more ways of being than of non-being. In fact, it is not
that different of saying that the laws of this universe are unlikely
(given that many more are possible). But it is all combinatorics.


 You say existence is more likely than nonexistence based on this
 imaginary subtraction/addition, but think about the meaning of likely.
 What is the set you're sampling from? All possible states of existence
 including the absence of anything - the empty set. So you've already
 'created' the universe of universes as it were. Why is there a set to
 sample from to allow there to be any likelihood of one or the other state
 of being? That is the crux of the issue.


Well, I have not really created this set of possibilities, have I? The
possibilities are out there, so to speak. I cannot even imagine how to make
them go away, so to speak. I mean, I can imagine my home does not exist,
but I cannot imagine the absence of the possibility of my home.

OK, let's try another angle. People in this list have infinite universes
for breakfast. To me, the most important problem of multiverses is that
most universes in them are random (white rabbits). But it is not usually
appreciated that very vew of them correspond to Newtonian empty space. In
fact, the multiverse already explains why there is something rather than
empty space (at the cost of white rabbits). I agree that Newtonian empty
space is not nothing, but the argument that I have used is very similar,
and classic empty space is what most people mean by nothing anyway.

Ricardo.

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 May 2012, at 12:36, R AM wrote:




On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 2:25 AM, Pierz pier...@gmail.com wrote:

You must have misread me. I am anything but sure nothing must have  
come before.


Yes, probably I did.

Indeed, my whole point is that something from nothing - genuine  
nothing - is a nonsense. You can't bridge the hgap between existence  
and non existence by any causal process. I think that's obvious, and  
we must accept that the universe simply 'is'.


I agree.

An empty set is not the absence of a set.

A set is a collection of elements and the empty set is the absence  
of elements (nothing).


The empty set is the absence of elements (nothing) in that set. It is  
the set { }.
The empty set is not nothing. For example, the set is { { } } is not  
empty. It contains as element the empty set.

Just to be precise.



But to take another angle on it: consider what you mean by removing  
these objects. It's merely something you're imagining, it does not  
correspond to any real process. In reality, energy and matter  
transform, they are not created or destroyed.


I agree, it is not a physical process. But I am not proposing this  
combinatorics as a way to create something from nothing, but just to  
show that there are more ways of being than of non-being. In fact,  
it is not that different of saying that the laws of this universe  
are unlikely (given that many more are possible). But it is all  
combinatorics.


You say existence is more likely than nonexistence based on this  
imaginary subtraction/addition, but think about the meaning of  
likely. What is the set you're sampling from? All possible states  
of existence including the absence of anything - the empty set. So  
you've already 'created' the universe of universes as it were. Why  
is there a set to sample from to allow there to be any likelihood of  
one or the other state of being? That is the crux of the issue.


Well, I have not really created this set of possibilities, have I?  
The possibilities are out there, so to speak. I cannot even imagine  
how to make them go away, so to speak. I mean, I can imagine my home  
does not exist, but I cannot imagine the absence of the possibility  
of my home.


OK, let's try another angle. People in this list have infinite  
universes for breakfast. To me, the most important problem of  
multiverses is that most universes in them are random (white  
rabbits). But it is not usually appreciated that very vew of them  
correspond to Newtonian empty space. In fact, the multiverse already  
explains why there is something rather than empty space (at the cost  
of white rabbits). I agree that Newtonian empty space is not  
nothing, but the argument that I have used is very similar, and  
classic empty space is what most people mean by nothing anyway.


Ricardo.


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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread R AM
On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 12:48 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 The empty set is the absence of elements (nothing) in that set. It is the
 set { }.
 The empty set is not nothing. For example, the set is { { } } is not
 empty. It contains as element the empty set.
 Just to be precise.


Well, I guess that the empty set is more like an empty box.

Ricardo.

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread Craig Weinberg
On May 9, 5:30 am, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net









   On 5/8/2012 4:24 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

  On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 5:52 AM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com 
  jami...@gmail.com wrote:

   Stathis: what's your definition? - JM

  On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 6:56 PM, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com 
  stath...@gmail.com
  wrote:

   On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 10:46 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru 
  use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:

   I have started listening to Beginning of Infinity and joined the
  discussion
  list for the book. Right now there is a discussion there

  Free will in 
  MWIhttp://groups.google.com/group/beginning-of-infinity/t/b172f0e03d68bcc6

  I am at the beginning of the book and I do not know for sure, but from
  the
  answers to this discussion it seems that according to David Deutsch one
  can
  find free will in MWI.

   One can find or not find free will anywhere depending on how one
  defines it. That is the entire issue with free will.

   My definition: free will is when you're not sure you're going to do
  something until you've done it.

  So if carefully weigh my options and decide on one it's not free will?
  I'd say free will is making any choice that is not coerced by another agent.

  Brent

 It's compatible with what Stathis said... unti you've made the actual
 choise, you didn't do it and didn't know what it will be...  the do
 something of Stathis can be you're not sure what you'll choose until you've
 chosen it.

What difference does it make whether you know what you'll choose
before, during, or after the choice? The key is the word choice
itself. The feeling that we can choose is free will. I can't choose
whether or not I get a fever, and the fact that I don't know that I am
going to get one doesn't make the fever any more of an expression of
my free will. Without the feeling of choice, all of our experiences
would be like getting the fever and we would be helpless spectators to
a deterministic world that we have no investment in.

Craig

Craig

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 May 2012, at 13:19, R AM wrote:

On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 12:48 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:
The empty set is the absence of elements (nothing) in that set. It  
is the set { }.
The empty set is not nothing. For example, the set is { { } } is not  
empty. It contains as element the empty set.

Just to be precise.

Well, I guess that the empty set is more like an empty box.


Yes.
Nothing, in set theory, would be more like an empty *collection* of  
sets, or an empty universe (a model of set theory), except that in  
first order logic we forbid empty models (so that AxP(x) - ExP(x)  
remains valid, to simplify life (proofs)).


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread R AM

 PM, Bruno Marchal

 Yes.
 Nothing, in set theory, would be more like an empty *collection* of
 sets, or an empty universe (a model of set theory), except that in first
 order logic we forbid empty models (so that AxP(x) - ExP(x) remains valid,
 to simplify life (proofs)).


nothing could also be obtained by removing the curly brackets from the
empty set {}. Or removing the (empty) container. I guess this would be
equivalent to removing space from the universe. Except that this doesn't
make any sense in Set Theory (maybe it doesn't make any sense in reality
either).

Still, {} is some sort of nothing in Set Theory, given that it is what is
left after all that is allowed to be removed, is removed.

Ricardo.



 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

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Re: [foar] A boost for quantum reality

2012-05-09 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi Richard,

It seems to me, as the author vaguely admit implicitly in the  
conclusion that this is just a very nice argument for Everett many- 
worlds. It is weird that they don't make it explicit.


I read it very quickly, though. It looks very nice, but  
philosophically it oscillates between Copenhagen (the collapse is  
physical) and the still Copenhagen (post EPR), ASSA sort of  
bayesianism applied to the QM waves, instead of the RSSA relative  
states and worlds, which needs to be used with comp ...
... and then not just on the physical quantum wave, but on the more  
gigantic arithmetical truth seen from inside.


Interesting paper(http://lanl.arxiv.org/pdf/.3328v2.pdf), thanks.  
It can help those knowing QM to see that comp just extends Everett  
Many Worlds into Arithmetical Many (pieces of) Computations. You can  
see UDA that way.


This makes comp more problematical than usually thought (by  
materialist) because we have to extract the wave from a much more  
complex and deep reality. But there is a sort of algorithm provided by  
mathematical logic/computer science which gives quickly the machine's  
big conceptual picture, analogous to UDA conclusion. The algorithm  
can be sum up by running an introspective simple Löbian machine  
(like Peano Arithmetic) locking inward, and describing what they can  
see and guess. That is technically possible as it has been pioneered  
by Gödel, Löb, many others up to Solovay who get the arithmetically  
complete G and G* (at the modal propositional level).
Advantage: the split between G and G*, makes its intensional variants  
describing a general theory of qualia, among which the quanta are only  
the first person plural sharable part.


The mystic says that the Universe is in your Head.
I suggest to verify if the Universe is in the Head of the Universal  
Numbers. To be short.


Bruno


On 09 May 2012, at 16:03, Richard Ruquist wrote:


A boost for quantum reality
May 9, 2012

http://www.kurzweilai.net/a-boost-for-quantum-reality?utm_source=KurzweilAI+Daily+Newsletterutm_campaign=47e1937043-UA-946742-1utm_medium=email
[+]

The authors show that wavefunctions are real physical states with a  
joint measurement on n qubits, with the property that each outcome  
has probability zero on one of the input states. Such a measurement  
can be performed by implementing the quantum circuit shown above.  
(Credit: Matthew F. Pusey, Jonathan Barrett, Terry Rudolph)


In a controversial paper in Nature Physics, theorists claim they can  
prove that wavefunctions — the entity that determines the  
probability of different outcomes of measurements on quantum- 
mechanical particles — are real states.


The paper is thought by some to be one of the most important in  
quantum foundations in decades. The authors say that the mathematics  
leaves no doubt that the wavefunction is not just a statistical  
tool, but rather, a real, objective state of a quantum system.


Matt Leifer, a physicist at University College London who works on  
quantum information, says that the theorem tackles a big question in  
a simple and clean way. He also says that it could end up being as  
useful as Bell’s theorem, which turned out to have applications in  
quantum information theory and cryptography.


But it’s incompatible with quantum mechanics, so the theorem also  
raises a deeper question: could quantum mechanics be wrong?


Ref.: Matthew F. Pusey, Jonathan Barrett, Terry Rudolph, On the  
reality of the quantum state, Nature Physics, 2012, DOI:10.1038/ 
nphys2309


Ref.: Matthew F. Pusey, Jonathan Barrett, Terry Rudolph, On the  
reality of the quantum state, 2011, arXiv:.3328v2


--

http://lanl.arxiv.org/pdf/.3328v2.pdf


On the reality of the quantum state

Matthew F. Pusey, Jonathan Barrett, Terry Rudolph
(Submitted on 14 Nov 2011 (v1), last revised 7 May 2012 (this  
version, v2))
Quantum states are the key mathematical objects in quantum theory.  
It is therefore surprising that physicists have been unable to agree  
on what a quantum state represents. One possibility is that a pure  
quantum state corresponds directly to reality. But there is a long  
history of suggestions that a quantum state (even a pure state)  
represents only knowledge or information of some kind. Here we show  
that any model in which a quantum state represents mere information  
about an underlying physical state of the system must make  
predictions which contradict those of quantum theory.




Excerpt: In conclusion, we have presented a no-go theorem, which  
{ modulo assumptions } shows that models in which the quantum state  
is interpreted as mere information about an objective physical state  
of a system cannot reproduce the predictions of quantum theory. The  
result is in the same spirit as Bell's theorem[13], which states  
that no local theory can reproduce the predictions of quantum  
theory. Both theorems need to assume that a 

Matter and Form: when they are paradoxical.

2012-05-09 Thread socra...@bezeqint.net
  Matter and Form:  when they are paradoxical.
=.
Wood  is  itself a matter.
Wood is itself a form, a geometrical form.
A cupboard made of wood  is a real whole of form and matter.
Geometrical form and matter are 'grown together' in it.
No form exist without matter.
Nor can there be matter without form.
But in micro-physics, physicists took up another conception.
According to this doctrine matter does exist,
but the form is not a physical object.
 The form is disappeared from the physical reality.
 They works with a 'point'.
Question.
Isn’t physics a science of the matter, form, energy
 and motion ? Aren’t all these subjects  'grown together' ?
Take away one subject and you have all modern paradoxes
 in the physics.
=.
Israel Socratus.
=.

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread meekerdb

On 5/9/2012 2:30 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 5/8/2012 4:24 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 5:52 AM, John Mikesjami...@gmail.com  
mailto:jami...@gmail.com  wrote:

Stathis: what's your definition? - JM

On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 6:56 PM, Stathis Papaioannoustath...@gmail.com  
mailto:stath...@gmail.com
wrote:

On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 10:46 PM, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  
mailto:use...@rudnyi.ru  wrote:

I have started listening to Beginning of Infinity and joined the
discussion
list for the book. Right now there is a discussion there

Free will in MWI
http://groups.google.com/group/beginning-of-infinity/t/b172f0e03d68bcc6

I am at the beginning of the book and I do not know for sure, but from
the
answers to this discussion it seems that according to David Deutsch one
can
find free will in MWI.

One can find or not find free will anywhere depending on how one
defines it. That is the entire issue with free will.

My definition: free will is when you're not sure you're going to do
something until you've done it.




So if carefully weigh my options and decide on one it's not free will?  I'd 
say free
will is making any choice that is not coerced by another agent.

Brent


It's compatible with what Stathis said... unti you've made the actual choise, you didn't 
do it and didn't know what it will be...  the do something of Stathis can be you're not 
sure what you'll choose until you've chosen it.


Are you saying that one *never* knows what they are going to do until they do it...which 
then by Stathis defintion means that every action is free will and coercion is impossible?


Brent

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 May 2012, at 17:09, R AM wrote:


PM, Bruno Marchal


Yes.
Nothing, in set theory, would be more like an empty *collection*  
of sets, or an empty universe (a model of set theory), except that  
in first order logic we forbid empty models (so that AxP(x) -  
ExP(x) remains valid, to simplify life (proofs)).


nothing could also be obtained by removing the curly brackets from  
the empty set {}.


N... Some bit of blank remains. If it was written on hemp, you  
could smoke it. That's not nothing!


Don't confuse the notion and the symbols used to point to the notion.  
Which you did, inadvertently I guess.


{ } is a set and { } is a string with 3 symbols, ... which should be  
differentiated even from the paper and ink, or stable picture on a  
screen, representing physically the symbols to you, and then from the  
image made by your brain, and the neuronal 'music' trigged by it, and  
the consciousness filtered locally by the process, etc.



Or removing the (empty) container. I guess this would be equivalent  
to removing space from the universe. Except that this doesn't make  
any sense in Set Theory (maybe it doesn't make any sense in reality  
either).


Still, {} is some sort of nothing in Set Theory,


Sure, like 0 is some sort of nothing in Number theory, and like  
quantum vacuum is some sort of nothing in QM. Nothing is a theory  
dependent notion. (Not so for the notion of computable functions).


Extensionally, the UD is a function from nothing (no inputs) to  
nothing (no outputs), but then what a worker!


Extensionally it belongs to { } ^ { }. It is a function from { } to { }.

But that is a bit trivial, I think. It is due to the fact that  
computability theory is not dimensional. Dimensions also have to be  
derived from the internal points of view (with comp), like the real  
and complex numbers and the physical laws.




given that it is what is left after all that is allowed to be  
removed, is removed.


OK.

Bruno





Ricardo.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread meekerdb

On 5/9/2012 11:43 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 5/9/2012 2:30 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 5/8/2012 4:24 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 5:52 AM, John Mikesjami...@gmail.com  
mailto:jami...@gmail.com  wrote:

Stathis: what's your definition? - JM

On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 6:56 PM, Stathis Papaioannoustath...@gmail.com  
mailto:stath...@gmail.com
wrote:

On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 10:46 PM, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  
mailto:use...@rudnyi.ru  wrote:

I have started listening to Beginning of Infinity and joined the
discussion
list for the book. Right now there is a discussion there

Free will in MWI
http://groups.google.com/group/beginning-of-infinity/t/b172f0e03d68bcc6

I am at the beginning of the book and I do not know for sure, but from
the
answers to this discussion it seems that according to David Deutsch one
can
find free will in MWI.

One can find or not find free will anywhere depending on how one
defines it. That is the entire issue with free will.

My definition: free will is when you're not sure you're going to do
something until you've done it.




So if carefully weigh my options and decide on one it's not free will?  
I'd say
free will is making any choice that is not coerced by another agent.

Brent


It's compatible with what Stathis said... unti you've made the actual 
choise, you
didn't do it and didn't know what it will be...  the do something of 
Stathis can
be you're not sure what you'll choose until you've chosen it.


Are you saying that one *never* knows what they are going to do until they 
do it...


 .You have some knowledge of what you'll do... but you can only really know 
retrospectively. Iow, you are your fastest simulator... if it was not the case it would 
be possible to implement a faster algorithm able to predict what you'll do before you 
even do it... that seems paradoxical.


I don't see anything paradoxical about it.  A computer that duplicated your brain's neural 
network, but used electrical or photonic signals (instead of electrochemical) would be 
orders of magnitude faster.  But this is has no effect on the compatibilist idea of free 
will (the kind of free will worth having).



which then by Stathis defintion means that every action is free will and 
coercion is
impossible?


Coercion limit your choices, not your will, you can still choose to die (if the choice 
was between your life and something else for example). You can always choose if you can 
think, it's not because the only available choices are bad, that your free will suddenly 
disapeared.


So would it be an unfree will if an external agent directly injected chemicals or 
electrical signals into your brain thereby causing a choice actually made by the external 
agent?


How is this different from an external agent directly injecting information via your 
senses causing and thereby causing a choice actually made by the agent?


Brent

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Re: The Brain Minds Whether We Believe in Free Will or Not

2012-05-09 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

On 09.05.2012 08:47 Bruno Marchal said the following:


On 08 May 2012, at 21:41, meekerdb wrote:


On 5/8/2012 12:04 PM, Craig Weinberg wrote:


On May 8, 2:17 pm, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:

On 07.05.2012 22:21 Craig Weinberg said the following:


On May 7, 3:37 pm, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net wrote:

...




Sure science grew out of Christianity, out of the decay and
fragmentation of Christianity.
When Christianity was strong and in control is what we call The
Dark Ages. Now that it
is no longer in control and the Western world relies on the
technology of science,
Christian apologists are writing revisionist histories.

I agree, organized religion has been a catastrophe for the world, and
it still is, but that doesn't change the historical emergence of
science from spiritual contemplation.

I would suggest you to consider Soviet Union under Stalin when military
atheists took the power over. I guess that the absolute number of
victims was even more.

Just one examples. Nikolai Vavilov - a famous biologist working in
genetics (compare his fate with that of Copernicus and Galileo)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nikolai_Vavilov

Late 1930s - Lysenko, who has conceived a hatred for genetics is put in
charge of all of Soviet agriculture
1940 - arrested for allegedly wrecking Soviet agriculture; delivered
more than a hundred hours of lectures on science while in prison
1943 - died imprisoned and suffering from dystrophia (faulty nutrition
of muscles, leading to paralysis), in the Saratov prison.


I don't think we can say that was caused by atheism though. Soviet
communism was still atheistic after Stalin, wasn't it? There are
secular authorities in power in other countries where there has not
been any genocidal consequences. It seems like there have been and
continue to be bloody crusades and inquisitions in the name of
religion specifically that we haven't really seen associated with
movements for the sake of atheism.

Craig



Any world view that attracts 'true believers' and promises 'a better
world' can be co-opted for political power. Humans are social animals
and like to belong to greater organizations. This is useful, but like
most useful things, also dangerous. Science tends to avoid this
because it institutionalizes skeptical testing.


I don't think so. You cannot institutionalize skeptical testing, or you
will kill skepticism. I know examples. You can encourage it by practice,
but once institutionalized, it stop working.


It could be partly institutionalized provided that power given for 
science is limited.


The point in my example was that when a person could acquire unlimited 
power, than even a skeptical thinker would quickly become a dictator.


In general, there is always fighting between different intellectual 
groups and the only difference is in allowable means in the fight that 
are accepted by a society.


Evgenii

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Re: The Brain Minds Whether We Believe in Free Will or Not

2012-05-09 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

On 08.05.2012 21:48 meekerdb said the following:

On 5/8/2012 11:09 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


...



For the development of science, it is necessary to have a believe that
equations discovered by a human mind could be used for the whole
history of Universe. At that time, this belief came from trinity.

The logic of trinity is more complex, it concerns that words can
explain Nature. I will report on this more, when I will work out
Collingwood's An Essay on Metaphysics. Roughly speaking In the
Beginning was the Word. The trinity, by the way, is not the invention
of Christianity, it comes from ancient times.

You have mentioned that you have another explanation why neuron nets
not only obey the physical laws but they also can comprehend the
physical laws. Could you please sketch it?


I don't recall making such a claim, but assuming brains are instances of
neural nets it's pretty clear that 'comprehend' means to implement
input/output functions that are useful for survival and reproduction.
Inventing mathematically consistent descriptions of physical processes
(aka physical laws) is very useful in survival and reproduction. Hence
neural nets evolve to comprehend physical laws.


Brent,

I believe that you have mentioned a book of your friend in this respect. 
I would be very much interesting in learning what modern science says 
about this.


In general, this implies that the physical laws must allow the neural 
nets to comprehend the physical laws, that is, there is some constraint 
on possible physical laws.


Evgenii



Brent




Evgenii





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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread John Mikes
Ricardo: I hate to become a nothingologist, but if you REMOVE things to
make NOTHING you still have the remnanat (empty space, hole, potential of
'it' having been there or whatever) from WHERE you removed it. IMO in
Nothing there is not even a where identified.
Forgive me the 'light' reply, please.
John M

On Tue, May 8, 2012 at 5:17 PM, R AM ramra...@gmail.com wrote:



  On Tue, May 8, 2012 at 9:46 PM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:

 Ricardo:
 good text! I may add to it:
 Who created Nothing? - of course: Nobody. (The ancient joke of Odysseus
 towards Polyphemos: 'Nobody' has hurt me).

 Just one thing: if it contains (includes) EMPTY SPACE, it includes space,
 it is not nothing.


 I actually meant that most of the time, people say nothing when they
 mean Newtonian empty space. I agree that nothing is not empty space.


 And please, do not forget about my adage in the previous post that limits
 (borders) are similarly not includable into nothing, so it must be an
 infinite - well - nothing.
 It still may contain things we have no knowledge about and in such case
 it is NOT nothing. We just are ignorant.


 I agree that if it contains things, then it is not nothing, but you can
 create a nothing by removing them.

 Ricardo.


 JM



 On Sun, May 6, 2012 at 1:06 PM, R AM ramra...@gmail.com wrote:

 Some thoughts about nothing:

 - If nothing has no properties, and a limitation is considered a
 property, then nothing cannot have any limitations, including the
 limitation of generating something. Therefore, something may come from
 nothing.

 - Given that something exists, it is possible that something exists
 (obviously). The later would be true even if nothing was the case.
 Therefore, we should envision the state of nothing co-existing with the
 possibility of something existing, which is rather bizarre.

 - Why should nothing be the default state? I think this is based on
 the intuition that nothing would require no explanation, whereas
 something requires an explanation. However, given that the possibility of
 something existing is necessarily true, an explanation would be required
 for why there is nothing instead of something.

 - There are many ways something can exist, but just one of nothing
 existing. Therefore, nothing is less likely :-)

 - I think the intuition that nothing requires less explanation than
 the universe we observe is based on a generalization of the idea of
 classical empty space. However, this intuition is based on what we know
 about *this* universe (i.e. empty space is simpler than things existing in
 it). But why this intuition about *our* reality should be extrapolated to
 metaphysics?

 - I think that the important question is why this universe instead of
 any other universe? (including nothing).

 Ricardo.

 On Sun, May 6, 2012 at 6:24 PM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Sat, May 5, 2012  John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:

   Is it so hard to understand a word?


 Yes, the word nothing keeps evolving. Until about a hundred years ago
 nothing just meant a vacuum, space empty of any matter; then a few years
 later the meaning was expanded to include lacking any energy too, then
 still later it meant also not having space, and then it meant not even
 having time. Something that is lacking matter energy time and space may not
 be the purest form of nothing but it is, you must admit, a pretty pitiful
 thing, and if science can explain (and someday it very well may be able
 to) how our world with all it's beautiful complexity came to be from such
 modest beginnings then that would not be a bad days work, and to call such
 activities incredibly shallow as some on this list have is just idiotic.



 *** N O T H I N G  -  *is not a set of anything, no potential


 Then the question can something come from nothing? has a obvious and
 extremely dull answer.

   I wrote once a little silly 'ode' about ontology. I started:
  In the beginning there was Nothingness.
  And when Nothingness realised it's nothingness
  It turned into Somethingness


 Then your version of nothing had something, the potential to produce
 something. I also note the use of the word when, thus time, which is
 something, existed in your nothing universe as well as potential.

   John K Clark


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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread R AM
On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 8:23 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 09 May 2012, at 17:09, R AM wrote:


 nothing could also be obtained by removing the curly brackets from the
 empty set {}.


 N... Some bit of blank remains. If it was written on hemp, you could
 smoke it. That's not nothing!

 Don't confuse the notion and the symbols used to point to the notion.
 Which you did, inadvertently I guess.


I was using the analogy between items contained in sets and things
contained in bags. The curly brackets would represent the bags. Removing
things from a bag leaves it empty. Removing the bag leaves ... nothing.

Sure, like 0 is some sort of nothing in Number theory, and like quantum
 vacuum is some sort of nothing in QM. Nothing is a theory dependent notion.
 (Not so for the notion of computable functions).


Yes, these concrete nothings are well behaved, unlike the absolute nothing,
which we don't know what rules it obey (in case it is a meaningful concept,
which it might not be).



 Extensionally, the UD is a function from nothing (no inputs) to nothing
 (no outputs), but then what a worker!

 Extensionally it belongs to { } ^ { }. It is a function from { } to { }.


But I guess that is because the UD generates internally all possible inputs
for all possible programs, isn't it.

Ricardo.

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread meekerdb

On 5/9/2012 12:09 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 5/9/2012 11:43 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 5/9/2012 2:30 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 5/8/2012 4:24 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 5:52 AM, John Mikesjami...@gmail.com  
mailto:jami...@gmail.com  wrote:

Stathis: what's your definition? - JM

On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 6:56 PM, Stathis Papaioannoustath...@gmail.com  
mailto:stath...@gmail.com
wrote:

On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 10:46 PM, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  
mailto:use...@rudnyi.ru  wrote:

I have started listening to Beginning of Infinity and joined the
discussion
list for the book. Right now there is a discussion there

Free will in MWI

http://groups.google.com/group/beginning-of-infinity/t/b172f0e03d68bcc6

I am at the beginning of the book and I do not know for sure, but 
from
the
answers to this discussion it seems that according to David Deutsch 
one
can
find free will in MWI.

One can find or not find free will anywhere depending on how one
defines it. That is the entire issue with free will.

My definition: free will is when you're not sure you're going to do
something until you've done it.




So if carefully weigh my options and decide on one it's not free will? 
I'd say free will is making any choice that is not coerced by another agent.


Brent


It's compatible with what Stathis said... unti you've made the actual 
choise,
you didn't do it and didn't know what it will be...  the do something 
of
Stathis can be you're not sure what you'll choose until you've chosen 
it.


Are you saying that one *never* knows what they are going to do until 
they do it...


 .You have some knowledge of what you'll do... but you can only really 
know
retrospectively. Iow, you are your fastest simulator... if it was not the 
case it
would be possible to implement a faster algorithm able to predict what 
you'll do
before you even do it... that seems paradoxical.


I don't see anything paradoxical about it.  A computer that duplicated your 
brain's
neural network, but used electrical or photonic signals (instead of 
electrochemical)
would be orders of magnitude faster.


It's paradoxical, because if it could, I could know the outcome, and if I could know the 
outcome, then I can do something else, and If I do something else, then the simulation 
of that superphotonic computer is wrong hence the hypothesis that it could simulate my 
choice faster than me is impossible (because if it could, it *must* take in account my 
future knowledge of my choice, if it does not, it is no faster to simulate what I'll do 
than me).


That's an incoherent paradox.  You've now assumed that not only is your brain simulated, 
so your action is known in advance, but also that the simulation information is fed back 
to your brain so it influences the action.  That's changing the problem and essentially 
creating a brain+simulator=brain'. The fact that brain'=/=brain is hardly paradoxical.



But this is has no effect on the compatibilist idea of free will (the kind 
of free
will worth having).



which then by Stathis defintion means that every action is free will and
coercion is impossible?


Coercion limit your choices, not your will, you can still choose to die (if 
the
choice was between your life and something else for example). You can 
always choose
if you can think, it's not because the only available choices are bad, that 
your
free will suddenly disapeared.


So would it be an unfree will if an external agent directly injected 
chemicals or
electrical signals into your brain thereby causing a choice actually made 
by the
external agent?


yes



Why is it still you if your brain is hooked up to something that allows an external 
agent to control your body?






How is this different from an external agent directly injecting information 
via your
senses causing and thereby causing a choice actually made by the agent?

In the first case *you* choose, in the second case you don't.


?? That's the reverse of your previous post in which you held that an external agent 
threatening you does not remove your free will.  You said it just limited your choices, 
you still chose.   Did you read my post correctly?


Brent

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing?

2012-05-09 Thread R AM
On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 9:26 PM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:

 Ricardo: I hate to become a nothingologist, but if you REMOVE things to
 make NOTHING you still have the remnanat (empty space, hole, potential of
 'it' having been there or whatever) from WHERE you removed it. IMO in
 Nothing there is not even a where identified.


But the space gets removed too ... I'm not sure if I understand you.

Ricardo.


  Forgive me the 'light' reply, please.
 John M

 On Tue, May 8, 2012 at 5:17 PM, R AM ramra...@gmail.com wrote:



  On Tue, May 8, 2012 at 9:46 PM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:

 Ricardo:
 good text! I may add to it:
 Who created Nothing? - of course: Nobody. (The ancient joke of
 Odysseus towards Polyphemos: 'Nobody' has hurt me).

 Just one thing: if it contains (includes) EMPTY SPACE, it includes
 space, it is not nothing.


 I actually meant that most of the time, people say nothing when they
 mean Newtonian empty space. I agree that nothing is not empty space.


 And please, do not forget about my adage in the previous post that
 limits (borders) are similarly not includable into nothing, so it must be
 an infinite - well - nothing.
 It still may contain things we have no knowledge about and in such case
 it is NOT nothing. We just are ignorant.


 I agree that if it contains things, then it is not nothing, but you can
 create a nothing by removing them.

 Ricardo.


 JM



 On Sun, May 6, 2012 at 1:06 PM, R AM ramra...@gmail.com wrote:

 Some thoughts about nothing:

 - If nothing has no properties, and a limitation is considered a
 property, then nothing cannot have any limitations, including the
 limitation of generating something. Therefore, something may come from
 nothing.

 - Given that something exists, it is possible that something exists
 (obviously). The later would be true even if nothing was the case.
 Therefore, we should envision the state of nothing co-existing with the
 possibility of something existing, which is rather bizarre.

 - Why should nothing be the default state? I think this is based on
 the intuition that nothing would require no explanation, whereas
 something requires an explanation. However, given that the possibility of
 something existing is necessarily true, an explanation would be required
 for why there is nothing instead of something.

 - There are many ways something can exist, but just one of nothing
 existing. Therefore, nothing is less likely :-)

 - I think the intuition that nothing requires less explanation than
 the universe we observe is based on a generalization of the idea of
 classical empty space. However, this intuition is based on what we know
 about *this* universe (i.e. empty space is simpler than things existing in
 it). But why this intuition about *our* reality should be extrapolated to
 metaphysics?

 - I think that the important question is why this universe instead of
 any other universe? (including nothing).

 Ricardo.

 On Sun, May 6, 2012 at 6:24 PM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.comwrote:

 On Sat, May 5, 2012  John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:

   Is it so hard to understand a word?


 Yes, the word nothing keeps evolving. Until about a hundred years
 ago nothing just meant a vacuum, space empty of any matter; then a few
 years later the meaning was expanded to include lacking any energy too,
 then still later it meant also not having space, and then it meant not 
 even
 having time. Something that is lacking matter energy time and space may 
 not
 be the purest form of nothing but it is, you must admit, a pretty pitiful
 thing, and if science can explain (and someday it very well may be able
 to) how our world with all it's beautiful complexity came to be from such
 modest beginnings then that would not be a bad days work, and to call such
 activities incredibly shallow as some on this list have is just idiotic.



 *** N O T H I N G  -  *is not a set of anything, no potential


 Then the question can something come from nothing? has a obvious and
 extremely dull answer.

   I wrote once a little silly 'ode' about ontology. I started:
  In the beginning there was Nothingness.
  And when Nothingness realised it's nothingness
  It turned into Somethingness


 Then your version of nothing had something, the potential to produce
 something. I also note the use of the word when, thus time, which is
 something, existed in your nothing universe as well as potential.

   John K Clark


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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread R AM
On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 1:24 AM, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.comwrote:


 My definition: free will is when you're not sure you're going to do
 something until you've done it.


My own take on free will is that it is mostly a social construct, so that
we can be blamed (and blame others) without feeling bad. The idea of free
will only makes sense within a society.

What I want from my decisions is to be correct. I'm not sure what would be
added if they also were absolutely free or what would be removed if they
were not. If you are alone in the jungle, the last thing that will bother
you is whether your decisions are absolutely free or not.

I wanted to propose you an experiment. Sit for a moment and try not to
think on anything. Sure enough, before 30 seconds have transpired, thoughts
will pop up into your mind. Did you decide to think those thoughts? No,
because you were actually trying not to think. If you were not doing this
exercise but in your normal life and found yourself eating a chocolat bar
you would believe that it was you who had decided so. But actually, it just
popped up into your mind too. Most of our life is like that.

Ricardo.



 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread meekerdb

On 5/9/2012 1:04 PM, R AM wrote:
On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 1:24 AM, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com 
mailto:stath...@gmail.com wrote:



My definition: free will is when you're not sure you're going to do
something until you've done it.


My own take on free will is that it is mostly a social construct, so that we can be 
blamed (and blame others) without feeling bad. The idea of free will only makes sense 
within a society.


Exactly.  It is only in contrast to coerced will.  An extreme example is prisoners of 
war.  It is generally considered traitorous for a prisoner to give helpful information to 
the enemy.  But an exception is made for yielding under torture.


Brent



What I want from my decisions is to be correct. I'm not sure what would be added if they 
also were absolutely free or what would be removed if they were not. If you are alone 
in the jungle, the last thing that will bother you is whether your decisions are 
absolutely free or not.


I wanted to propose you an experiment. Sit for a moment and try not to think on 
anything. Sure enough, before 30 seconds have transpired, thoughts will pop up into your 
mind. Did you decide to think those thoughts? No, because you were actually trying not 
to think. If you were not doing this exercise but in your normal life and found yourself 
eating a chocolat bar you would believe that it was you who had decided so. But 
actually, it just popped up into your mind too. Most of our life is like that.


Ricardo.

--
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread meekerdb

On 5/9/2012 1:11 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 5/9/2012 12:09 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 5/9/2012 11:43 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 5/9/2012 2:30 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 5/8/2012 4:24 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 5:52 AM, John Mikesjami...@gmail.com  
mailto:jami...@gmail.com  wrote:

Stathis: what's your definition? - JM

On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 6:56 PM, Stathis 
Papaioannoustath...@gmail.com  mailto:stath...@gmail.com
wrote:

On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 10:46 PM, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  
mailto:use...@rudnyi.ru  wrote:

I have started listening to Beginning of Infinity and joined the
discussion
list for the book. Right now there is a discussion there

Free will in MWI

http://groups.google.com/group/beginning-of-infinity/t/b172f0e03d68bcc6

I am at the beginning of the book and I do not know for sure, 
but from
the
answers to this discussion it seems that according to David 
Deutsch one
can
find free will in MWI.

One can find or not find free will anywhere depending on how one
defines it. That is the entire issue with free will.

My definition: free will is when you're not sure you're going 
to do
something until you've done it.




So if carefully weigh my options and decide on one it's not free
will?  I'd say free will is making any choice that is not 
coerced by
another agent.

Brent


It's compatible with what Stathis said... unti you've made the 
actual
choise, you didn't do it and didn't know what it will be...  the do
something of Stathis can be you're not sure what you'll choose until
you've chosen it.


Are you saying that one *never* knows what they are going to do 
until they
do it...


 .You have some knowledge of what you'll do... but you can only really 
know
retrospectively. Iow, you are your fastest simulator... if it was not 
the case
it would be possible to implement a faster algorithm able to predict 
what
you'll do before you even do it... that seems paradoxical.


I don't see anything paradoxical about it.  A computer that duplicated 
your
brain's neural network, but used electrical or photonic signals 
(instead of
electrochemical) would be orders of magnitude faster.


It's paradoxical, because if it could, I could know the outcome, and if I 
could
know the outcome, then I can do something else, and If I do something else, 
then
the simulation of that superphotonic computer is wrong hence the hypothesis 
that it
could simulate my choice faster than me is impossible (because if it could, 
it
*must* take in account my future knowledge of my choice, if it does not, it 
is no
faster to simulate what I'll do than me).


That's an incoherent paradox.  You've now assumed that not only is your 
brain
simulated, so your action is known in advance, but also that the simulation
information is fed back to your brain so it influences the action.  That's 
changing
the problem and essentially creating a brain+simulator=brain'. The fact that
brain'=/=brain is hardly paradoxical.


Hmm ok... I have to think it a little more.




But this is has no effect on the compatibilist idea of free will (the 
kind of
free will worth having).



which then by Stathis defintion means that every action is free 
will and
coercion is impossible?


Coercion limit your choices, not your will, you can still choose to die 
(if
the choice was between your life and something else for example). You 
can
always choose if you can think, it's not because the only available 
choices
are bad, that your free will suddenly disapeared.


So would it be an unfree will if an external agent directly injected 
chemicals
or electrical signals into your brain thereby causing a choice actually 
made by
the external agent?


yes



Why is it still you if your brain is hooked up to something that allows an
external agent to control your body?


I said the contrary... You asked if it would be unfree... I answered yes  (it would be 
unfree in this case).


OK, we agree on that.







How is this different from an 

Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

  On 5/9/2012 1:11 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

   On 5/9/2012 12:09 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

   On 5/9/2012 11:43 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

   On 5/9/2012 2:30 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

  On 5/8/2012 4:24 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

 On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 5:52 AM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com 
 jami...@gmail.com wrote:

  Stathis: what's your definition? - JM

 On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 6:56 PM, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com 
 stath...@gmail.com
 wrote:

  On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 10:46 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru 
 use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:

  I have started listening to Beginning of Infinity and joined the
 discussion
 list for the book. Right now there is a discussion there

 Free will in 
 MWIhttp://groups.google.com/group/beginning-of-infinity/t/b172f0e03d68bcc6

 I am at the beginning of the book and I do not know for sure, but from
 the
 answers to this discussion it seems that according to David Deutsch one
 can
 find free will in MWI.

  One can find or not find free will anywhere depending on how one
 defines it. That is the entire issue with free will.

  My definition: free will is when you're not sure you're going to do
 something until you've done it.




 So if carefully weigh my options and decide on one it's not free
 will?  I'd say free will is making any choice that is not coerced by
 another agent.

 Brent


 It's compatible with what Stathis said... unti you've made the actual
 choise, you didn't do it and didn't know what it will be...  the do
 something of Stathis can be you're not sure what you'll choose until you've
 chosen it.


  Are you saying that one *never* knows what they are going to do until
 they do it...


  .You have some knowledge of what you'll do... but you can only really
 know retrospectively. Iow, you are your fastest simulator... if it was
 not the case it would be possible to implement a faster algorithm able to
 predict what you'll do before you even do it... that seems paradoxical.


  I don't see anything paradoxical about it.  A computer that duplicated
 your brain's neural network, but used electrical or photonic signals
 (instead of electrochemical) would be orders of magnitude faster.


 It's paradoxical, because if it could, I could know the outcome, and if I
 could know the outcome, then I can do something else, and If I do something
 else, then the simulation of that superphotonic computer is wrong hence the
 hypothesis that it could simulate my choice faster than me is impossible
 (because if it could, it *must* take in account my future knowledge of my
 choice, if it does not, it is no faster to simulate what I'll do than me).


  That's an incoherent paradox.  You've now assumed that not only is your
 brain simulated, so your action is known in advance, but also that the
 simulation information is fed back to your brain so it influences the
 action.  That's changing the problem and essentially creating a
 brain+simulator=brain'. The fact that brain'=/=brain is hardly paradoxical.


 Hmm ok... I have to think it a little more.





 But this is has no effect on the compatibilist idea of free will (the
 kind of free will worth having).




 which then by Stathis defintion means that every action is free will
 and coercion is impossible?


 Coercion limit your choices, not your will, you can still choose to die
 (if the choice was between your life and something else for example). You
 can always choose if you can think, it's not because the only available
 choices are bad, that your free will suddenly disapeared.


  So would it be an unfree will if an external agent directly injected
 chemicals or electrical signals into your brain thereby causing a choice
 actually made by the external agent?


 yes



  Why is it still you if your brain is hooked up to something that
 allows an external agent to control your body?


 I said the contrary... You asked if it would be unfree... I answered
 yes  (it would be unfree in this case).


 OK, we agree on that.








 How is this different from an external agent directly injecting
 information via your senses causing and thereby causing a choice actually
 made by the agent?

  In the first case *you* choose,


 But you said in the first case 'you' were unfree??


 in the second case you don't.


  ?? That's the reverse of your previous post in which you held that an
 external agent threatening you does not remove your

  free will.  You said it just limited your choices, you still chose.
 Did you read my post correctly?


 Yes I read it correctly. If you fed chemicals and electrical signal to my
 brain then I did not *choose*.


 That's the first case, but not the second.



 So in the case I'm coerced by an external agent by external means, I can
 still choose only the 

Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/5/9 Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com



 2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

  On 5/9/2012 1:11 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

   On 5/9/2012 12:09 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

   On 5/9/2012 11:43 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

   On 5/9/2012 2:30 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

  On 5/8/2012 4:24 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

 On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 5:52 AM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com 
 jami...@gmail.com wrote:

  Stathis: what's your definition? - JM

 On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 6:56 PM, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com 
 stath...@gmail.com
 wrote:

  On Sat, May 5, 2012 at 10:46 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru 
 use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:

  I have started listening to Beginning of Infinity and joined the
 discussion
 list for the book. Right now there is a discussion there

 Free will in 
 MWIhttp://groups.google.com/group/beginning-of-infinity/t/b172f0e03d68bcc6

 I am at the beginning of the book and I do not know for sure, but from
 the
 answers to this discussion it seems that according to David Deutsch one
 can
 find free will in MWI.

  One can find or not find free will anywhere depending on how one
 defines it. That is the entire issue with free will.

  My definition: free will is when you're not sure you're going to do
 something until you've done it.




 So if carefully weigh my options and decide on one it's not free
 will?  I'd say free will is making any choice that is not coerced by
 another agent.

 Brent


 It's compatible with what Stathis said... unti you've made the actual
 choise, you didn't do it and didn't know what it will be...  the do
 something of Stathis can be you're not sure what you'll choose until 
 you've
 chosen it.


  Are you saying that one *never* knows what they are going to do
 until they do it...


  .You have some knowledge of what you'll do... but you can only really
 know retrospectively. Iow, you are your fastest simulator... if it was
 not the case it would be possible to implement a faster algorithm able to
 predict what you'll do before you even do it... that seems paradoxical.


  I don't see anything paradoxical about it.  A computer that
 duplicated your brain's neural network, but used electrical or photonic
 signals (instead of electrochemical) would be orders of magnitude faster.


 It's paradoxical, because if it could, I could know the outcome, and if
 I could know the outcome, then I can do something else, and If I do
 something else, then the simulation of that superphotonic computer is wrong
 hence the hypothesis that it could simulate my choice faster than me is
 impossible (because if it could, it *must* take in account my future
 knowledge of my choice, if it does not, it is no faster to simulate what
 I'll do than me).


  That's an incoherent paradox.  You've now assumed that not only is
 your brain simulated, so your action is known in advance, but also that the
 simulation information is fed back to your brain so it influences the
 action.  That's changing the problem and essentially creating a
 brain+simulator=brain'. The fact that brain'=/=brain is hardly paradoxical.


 Hmm ok... I have to think it a little more.





 But this is has no effect on the compatibilist idea of free will (the
 kind of free will worth having).




 which then by Stathis defintion means that every action is free will
 and coercion is impossible?


 Coercion limit your choices, not your will, you can still choose to die
 (if the choice was between your life and something else for example). You
 can always choose if you can think, it's not because the only available
 choices are bad, that your free will suddenly disapeared.


  So would it be an unfree will if an external agent directly injected
 chemicals or electrical signals into your brain thereby causing a choice
 actually made by the external agent?


 yes



  Why is it still you if your brain is hooked up to something that
 allows an external agent to control your body?


 I said the contrary... You asked if it would be unfree... I answered
 yes  (it would be unfree in this case).


 OK, we agree on that.








 How is this different from an external agent directly injecting
 information via your senses causing and thereby causing a choice actually
 made by the agent?

  In the first case *you* choose,


 But you said in the first case 'you' were unfree??


 in the second case you don't.


  ?? That's the reverse of your previous post in which you held that an
 external agent threatening you does not remove your

  free will.  You said it just limited your choices, you still chose.
 Did you read my post correctly?


 Yes I read it correctly. If you fed chemicals and electrical signal to my
 brain then I did not *choose*.


 That's the first case, but not the second.



 So in the case I'm coerced by an external agent 

Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread meekerdb

On 5/9/2012 2:15 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


Maybe we need to number these:

(1)...an external agent directly injected chemicals or electrical signals 
into your
brain thereby causing a choice actually made by the external agent.

To which you answered Yes (that's unfree). AND ...in the first case 
I can
still choose.

(2) ...an external agent directly injecting information *via your 
senses*...

To which you answered ...in the second case I don't have free will.

Yet (2) consists only of the external agent talking to you and threatening 
or cajoling.

Brent


And here I made it clear that the first case was what I was talking about first and the 
second case was your thought experiment (chemical/electrical puppeting trick) that came 
after.


Whatever, there is no point repeating I answer I can still choose when I was unfree, I 
did not say that.


OK, I misunderstood what you meant by 'first' and 'second'.   But then I'm not sure what 
your opinion of (2) and why it is different from (1)?


Brent

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread meekerdb

On 5/9/2012 2:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

So:

1- If someone is threatening me via my senses (via a weapons he holds, on some forces he 
acts upon me... I still have free will, I've still the ability to choose, some choices 
are more dangerous, I'm coerced to choose what the agressor wants, but still have the 
possibility to act otherwise upon my will.


But if you do decide to comply determinism would say there wasn't a possibility you could 
have done otherwise.  The other agent was compelling.




2- If someone is using chemical or electrical agent modifying my brain state and having 
me acting like a puppet, I don't have free will, I don't have anymore the possibility to 
act otherwise.


But is it really different?  The words spoken to you also modify your brain state.  It's 
not 'acting like a puppet' because it changes your mind as well as your action, you still 
think you're making a choice - it's not that the external agent just drives the efferent 
nerves to your muscles.


Brent

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

  On 5/9/2012 2:15 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

  Maybe we need to number these:

 (1)...an external agent directly injected chemicals or electrical
 signals into your brain thereby causing a choice actually made by the
 external agent.

 To which you answered Yes (that's unfree). AND ...in the first
 case I can still choose.

 (2) ...an external agent directly injecting information *via your senses
 *...

 To which you answered ...in the second case I don't have free will.

 Yet (2) consists only of the external agent talking to you and
 threatening or cajoling.

 Brent


 And here I made it clear that the first case was what I was talking about
 first and the second case was your thought experiment (chemical/electrical
 puppeting trick) that came after.

 Whatever, there is no point repeating I answer I can still choose when I
 was unfree, I did not say that.


 OK, I misunderstood what you meant by 'first' and 'second'.   But then I'm
 not sure what your opinion of (2) and why it is different from (1)?

 It is in the ability to make a choice yourself, not that there are limited
choices options. Coercion limit the available choices... If you are
obligated to choose under coercions, the choices are not free, but to act
(or not) on them is still free (you still can think) contrary to when in
your setting you cannot act at all.

Quentin



 Brent

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

 On 5/9/2012 2:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 So:

 1- If someone is threatening me via my senses (via a weapons he holds, on
 some forces he acts upon me... I still have free will, I've still the
 ability to choose, some choices are more dangerous, I'm coerced to choose
 what the agressor wants, but still have the possibility to act otherwise
 upon my will.


 But if you do decide to comply determinism would say there wasn't a
 possibility you could have done otherwise.  The other agent was compelling.



 2- If someone is using chemical or electrical agent modifying my brain
 state and having me acting like a puppet, I don't have free will, I don't
 have anymore the possibility to act otherwise.


 But is it really different?  The words spoken to you also modify your
 brain state.  It's not 'acting like a puppet' because it changes your mind
 as well as your action, you still think you're making a choice - it's not
 that the external agent just drives the efferent nerves to your muscles.

 Well it's not an off/on switch... so it depends. I'd say that while you
can still think for yourself, then you still have some amount of free
will... less and less free while more and more coerced.

Unless there is only one choice left (strange to still called that a
choice).. there still some amount of free will.

Because in reality... the world if full of coercions, social, geographical
etc... so either the stance is there is no free will because there is
always something that limit the availables choices hence the choice itself
is not free because it is constrained or until there is no more choices,
some amount of free will/self determination is present.

Quentin


 Brent


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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread meekerdb

On 5/9/2012 3:34 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/9 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 5/9/2012 2:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

So:

1- If someone is threatening me via my senses (via a weapons he holds, 
on some
forces he acts upon me... I still have free will, I've still the 
ability to
choose, some choices are more dangerous, I'm coerced to choose what the 
agressor
wants, but still have the possibility to act otherwise upon my will.


But if you do decide to comply determinism would say there wasn't a 
possibility you
could have done otherwise.  The other agent was compelling.



2- If someone is using chemical or electrical agent modifying my brain 
state and
having me acting like a puppet, I don't have free will, I don't have 
anymore the
possibility to act otherwise.


But is it really different?  The words spoken to you also modify your brain 
state.
 It's not 'acting like a puppet' because it changes your mind as well as 
your
action, you still think you're making a choice - it's not that the external 
agent
just drives the efferent nerves to your muscles.

Well it's not an off/on switch... so it depends. I'd say that while you can still think 
for yourself, then you still have some amount of free will... less and less free while 
more and more coerced.


Unless there is only one choice left (strange to still called that a choice).. there 
still some amount of free will.


Because in reality... the world if full of coercions, social, geographical etc... so 
either the stance is there is no free will because there is always something that limit 
the availables choices hence the choice itself is not free because it is constrained or 
until there is no more choices, some amount of free will/self determination is present.


I agree.  There's no sharp line between coerced and free choice.  In legal cases it's 
something for juries to decide.  So 'free will' is mainly a social concept meaning 'not 
unduly influenced and therefore responsible'.


Brent

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 10:22 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 My definition: free will is when you're not sure you're going to do
 something until you've done it.



 So if carefully weigh my options and decide on one it's not free will?  I'd
 say free will is making any choice that is not coerced by another agent.

Even if you carefully weigh your options you have the feeling that you
could change your mind at the last option. However, I didn't want to
argue about the definition. The point I was making is that different
people can legitimately differ on how they define it, so that
depending on the definition it is or isn't compatible with
determinism.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-09 Thread meekerdb

On 5/9/2012 4:40 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On Wed, May 9, 2012 at 10:22 AM, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:


My definition: free will is when you're not sure you're going to do
something until you've done it.



So if carefully weigh my options and decide on one it's not free will?  I'd
say free will is making any choice that is not coerced by another agent.


Even if you carefully weigh your options you have the feeling that you
could change your mind at the last option. However, I didn't want to
argue about the definition. The point I was making is that different
people can legitimately differ on how they define it, so that
depending on the definition it is or isn't compatible with
determinism.




I agree with that point.  But I also wanted to make the point that there is social concept 
of free will that has to do with responsibility, and it is compatible with different 
dualist, determinist, and non-deterministic concepts of will, free and otherwise.


Brent

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