Scott Aronson on free will

2012-10-30 Thread meekerdb

John Clark should get a kick out of this:

http://www.scottaaronson.com/talks/
A Scientifically-Supportable Notion of Free Will In Only 6 Controversial Steps: The 
Looniest Talk I've Ever Given In My Life 
http://www.scottaaronson.com/talks/freewill.ppt: Setting Time Aright (FQXi Conference), 
Copenhagen, Denmark, August 31, 2011


Brent

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Re: Scott Aronson on free will

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 2:46 AM, meekerdb wrote:

John Clark should get a kick out of this:

http://www.scottaaronson.com/talks/
A Scientifically-Supportable Notion of Free Will In Only 6 
Controversial Steps: The Looniest Talk I've Ever Given In My Life 
http://www.scottaaronson.com/talks/freewill.ppt: Setting Time Aright 
(FQXi Conference), Copenhagen, Denmark, August 31, 2011


Brent
--



   Amazing! I genuflect in Scott's general direction! Any chance that 
there is a video of this talk?


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Onward!

Stephen

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Re: Against Mechanism

2012-10-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Oct 2012, at 18:58, John Clark wrote:




On Mon, Oct 29, 2012 at 1:21 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:



 We know that as well as we know anything about physics


 This is not valid.


NOT A VALID POINT?!


Indeed.





 A priori we can be dreaming in some world based on a different  
physics. Or, as with comp we might belong only to sophisticated  
computations,


Are you seriously suggesting that we trash our physics textbooks and  
it doesn't bother you if one of your statements does not correspond  
to physical experiments??


We don't have to trash any textbook on physics. Only the Aristotelian  
theology which is implicitly or explicitly presupposed when discussing  
the interpretation of the physical facts and theories.







2) the Platonist one, in which the physical reality is the border,  
or the shadow of a vaster invisible reality.


If it's in shadow then it can't be seen so there is nothing to be  
gained by talking about it.


Atoms, quark, mathematical structure, parallel universes,  
causality,  there are many things that we can't see, and most of  
the seeing we do is already interpreted from conscious or unconscious  
pre-theoretical analysis, some of them being almost as older than our  
brains.


I think your point are not relevant, and that you would understand  
this by yourself if you took the time to study the reasoning I have  
proposed to you.







 we were talking about the theoretical feasibility of making a  
prediction and making a forecast of yesterday's weather is not of  
much use.


 No. We were talking on something else.


I was talking about it,


That was a non relevant digression.



I don't know what you were talking about.



So you were not answering the question in my post, which can be sum  
up: are you OK with step 3, and what about step 4? You are the one  
pretending seeing a problem, and as many notice, you just keep not  
answering the question. You did understand well the 1-3 distinction,  
so it is utterly not understandable why you remain stuck on this.


I can ask you another question: how do you predict what you will  
subjectively see, when doing an experience of physics (my question  
does not depend on which one)? Do you think that the answer will  
depend, or not, of the presence of a universal dovetailer in the  
physical universe?


Bruno




  John K Clark


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Re: Self-ascription and Perfect Model Model

2012-10-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Oct 2012, at 18:21, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

Some more quotes from From Scientific Representation: Paradoxes of  
Perspective by Bas C Van Fraassen.


p. 45 Agreed, we cannot demonstrate that in principle, as a matter  
of logic, mathematical modeling must inevitably be a distortion of  
what is modeled, although models actually constructed cannot have  
perfection reachable in principle. But on the other hand, the  
conviction that perfect modeling is possible in principle - what  
Paul Teller calls the perfect model model - does not have an a  
priori justification either!


That depends on the assumption we can make. Comp allows perfect  
model, as it makes the mind into an entity mathematically associated  
to perfect mathematical notion, like computation (thanks to Church  
thesis).






p. 83 Suppose now that science gives us a model which putatively  
represents the world in full detail. Suppose even we believe that  
this is so.


With comp it is so, for the realm. But it is a nonsense to use it to  
represent the world in full detail, at least not effectively.  The  
expression world in full detail is very ambiguous.





Suppose we regard ourselves as knowing that it is so.


This is just impossible.


Then still, before we can go on to use that model, to make  
predictions and build bridges, we must locate ourselves with respect  
to that model. So apparently we need to have something in addition  
to what science has given us here. The extra is the self-ascription  
of location.


The taking into account of the first person view. yes, that is  
important, but it might not be an extra. In comp it is a given.





p. 83 Have we now landed in a dilemma for our view of science as  
paradigmatically objective? If we say that the self-ascription is a  
simple, objective statement of fact, then science is inevitably  
doomed to be objectively incomplete. If instead we say it is  
something irreducibly subjective, then we have also admitted a limit  
to objectivity, we have let subjectivity into science.


Given that with comp both epistemology and physics are objectively  
*subjective* (first person plural) construct (coherent person dreams),  
that is hardly astonishing. Van Fraassen seems just discovering a part  
of the difficulty of physicalism, by becoming aware of the importance  
of the points of view of the creature described by the theory. With  
comp it should be quickly clear that subjectivity is important, even  
in the making of the physical laws.


Bruno





Evgenii
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Re: A mirror of the universe.

2012-10-30 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi Roger,

Hope everything is fine with Sandy.

On 29 Oct 2012, at 20:21, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal

I think you're right. Anyway, I've since decided that the numbers
have to be simply a priori. Like the pre-established (a priori)  
Harmony.


I am OK with this. Note that it is mysterious, but that mystery can be  
explained as being necessarily mysterious. We can't explain our  
intuition of numbers without using our intuition of numbers. It is an  
irreducible mystery, but then nobody doubt them, and they are a good  
starting point. Comp explains conceptually, and even quantitatively  
(but there are many open problems) how the coupling consciousness/ 
physical-reality appears from just the numbers (and the association of  
consciousness to *some* computation, but this can be eliminated in  
terms of statistics on first person relative memories).


Bruno





Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net
10/29/2012
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen


- Receiving the following content -
From: Bruno Marchal
Receiver: everything-list
Time: 2012-10-29, 13:49:33
Subject: Re: A mirror of the universe.


On 29 Oct 2012, at 17:34, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal

OK, let's suppose that the numbers can be considered as ideas
in the mind of the One or the Supreme monad, which
is the monad for the universe. Then the universe
would be the corporeal body. Or something like that.


Hmm... I don't think this can work. The supreme monads can only dream,
the physical universe is when many universal numbers shared their
dreams, in some manner. There is no ultimate corporeal body, at least
not in the 'usual' sense, as some collection of dreams might point on
something very similar.
It is complex to explain the picture from scratch. It is simpler to
get it by oneself by doing the reasoning. We will see. The supreme
monad, as you define it, is just the 'man', or the L?ian universal
machine (man is used in a very large but precise sense, it includes
plausibly the jumping spiders). You have 8 hypostases:

  God
 Man Divine-Man
  Soul

Intelligible matter Divine intelligible Matter
Sensible Matter Divine Sensible Matter

You supreme monad might be played by the Man or the Divine-Man, or
Divine-Intellect (it is Plato's No?).
Read some of my papers perhaps, but you might need to study a bit of
logic and computer science for this.

Bruno




Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net
10/29/2012
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen


- Receiving the following content -
From: Bruno Marchal
Receiver: everything-list
Time: 2012-10-29, 11:54:20
Subject: Re: A mirror of the universe.


On 28 Oct 2012, at 23:31, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal

I still haven't sorted the issue of numbers out.
I suppose I ought to do some research in my Leibniz books.


That's OK, but eventually you have to look inward, and see what you
think. the solution is in your head, even if Leibniz can help you.





Aside from that, monads have to be attached to corporeal bodies,


Intensional numbers needs some universal numbers around to make  
sense.

basically the extensional number is the corporeal bodies. They just
take the usual shape, when the u number emerges from all  
computations,

apparently.





and numbers aren't like that.


They are. You can say that a game of life pattern does not look  
like a

number too, but this is just an appearance.




I find the following unsatisfactory,
but since numbers are like ideas, they can be
in the minds of individual homunculi in individual monads,
but that doesn't sound satisfactoriy to me.
Not universakl enough.


I don't get your point. I think you should study the theory of
universal machine. I explain a bit of this on the FOAR list.






My best guess for now is that the supreme monad (the One)  
undoubtedly

somehow possesses the numbers.


The supreme monad might be played by the universal number, but is not
the one (God, arithmetical truth).
Universal numbers are more the Plotinus' man. They are sigma_1
complete. God, is sigma_i complete for all i.




Hurricane coming.


Be careful,

Bruno





Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net
10/28/2012
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen


- Receiving the following content -
From: Bruno Marchal
Receiver: everything-list
Time: 2012-10-27, 09:31:59
Subject: Re: A mirror of the universe.


On 26 Oct 2012, at 14:44, Roger Clough wrote:




Dear Bruno and Alberto,

I agree some what with both of you. As to the idea of a genetic
algorithm can isolate anticipative programs, I think that
anticipation
is the analogue of inertia for computations, as Mach saw inertia.  
It

is
a relation between any one and the class of computations that it
belongs
to such that any incomplete string has a completion in the
collections
of others like it. This is like an error correction or compression
mechanism.

--  
Onward!

All is well

2012-10-30 Thread Roger Clough

The storm has passed and all is well. 
Luckily Rockville was hardly affected by the storm. 
My electric power never even went out.

I hope everybody else is OK also.


Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net 
10/30/2012  
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen

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Downward causation- the correct paradigm for science

2012-10-30 Thread Roger Clough
Downward causation- the correct paradigm for science

Leibniz's metaphysics was created in the 17th century
to overcome the logical error on which all current 
science is founded, namely the acceptance that mind and 
matter can directly interact through effective (upward) causation,
although they are completely foreign to one another
in nature.  The truth is, as Leibniz showed, that
all causation is actually downward (caused by mind), 
although it may appear, as in contemporary science,
to be upward-caused. 

This does not cause all of today's science, based
on appearances, to be wrong, but it opens the door 
to new (and now perfectly logical) scientific explanations 
for unexplained phenomena such as gravity and the 
interactions between brain and mind.  


Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net 
10/30/2012  
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen

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Re: Self-ascription and Perfect Model Model

2012-10-30 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

On 29.10.2012 20:44 meekerdb said the following:

On 10/29/2012 11:33 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

On 29.10.2012 19:21 meekerdb said the following:

On 10/29/2012 10:21 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

Some more quotes from From Scientific Representation: Paradoxes
of Perspective by Bas C Van Fraassen.

p. 45 Agreed, we cannot demonstrate that in principle, as a
matter of logic, mathematical modeling must inevitably be a
distortion of what is modeled, although models actually
constructed cannot have perfection reachable in principle. But
on the other hand, the conviction that perfect modeling is
possible in principle - what Paul Teller calls the perfect
model model - does not have an a priori justification
either!

p. 83 Suppose now that science gives us a model which
putatively represents the world in full detail. Suppose even we
believe that this is so. Suppose we regard ourselves as knowing
that it is so. Then still, before we can go on to use that
model, to make predictions and build bridges, we must locate
ourselves with respect to that model.


If the model is complete it must already include us - as well as
what we will think about it and do with it.  But then this will
run into Godelian incompleteness.  If it is true it will be
unprovable within the model.


The question would be how it should be done practically. Say let us
 imagine that such a model is the M-theory (I am still impressed by
 Grand Design by Hawking). How do I find myself in the M-theory?


In practice, which I'm sure you're familiar with, we don't 'locate
ourselves in the model'.  The model is in the objective world that we
 share with others who are also not in the model.  An engineer


In this chapter, Van Fraassen has considered a map as a model for a 
typical model. A map is in the objective world, as well as a scientific 
model, but to use the map one has to find out where on the map he/she is 
located. I hope that you agree with that.


Yet, now this process, located oneself on a map, could be extended to 
other scientific models. For example to those that engineers employ in 
their practice. An engineer has a scientific model on one hand and real 
things on the other hand. Similarly it is necessary to relate a model 
and reality and one needs a human being to achieve this goal.


Along this line of thought we come to a perfect model model that also 
is in the objective world, as for example the M-theory. The question 
however remains.


Evgenii


designing an airliner considers the airliner carrying other people,
but he doesn't model them completely - only their weight, size, use
of the restrooms, entertainment, etc.  He doesn't try to model their
inner thoughts unrelated to the airliner.  So a model, to be useful,
cannot be complete because part of its usefulness is that it can be
communicated and must be 3p, as Bruno would say.  That's not to say
that someone's inner thoughts cannot be in some model (the often are
in novels), but only that they can't be in that same person's model;
just like a Godel sentence unprovable in one system can be provable
in some other axiom system.

Brent



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Re: Self-ascription and Perfect Model Model

2012-10-30 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

On 30.10.2012 11:26 Bruno Marchal said the following:


On 29 Oct 2012, at 18:21, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


Some more quotes from From Scientific Representation: Paradoxes of
 Perspective by Bas C Van Fraassen.

p. 45 Agreed, we cannot demonstrate that in principle, as a matter
of logic, mathematical modeling must inevitably be a distortion of
what is modeled, although models actually constructed cannot have
perfection reachable in principle. But on the other hand, the
conviction that perfect modeling is possible in principle - what
Paul Teller calls the perfect model model - does not have an a
priori justification either!


That depends on the assumption we can make. Comp allows perfect
model, as it makes the mind into an entity mathematically
associated to perfect mathematical notion, like computation (thanks
to Church thesis).


I am afraid that you talk about another sort of a model. Van Fraassen 
starts from a human being and he considers (also historically) how 
scientific modeling is working.


Provided you assume comp, you still have to explain how science is 
working in a human society. I am not sure if I understand how comp could 
help at this point.


You talk for example about integers as a framework for everything. Fine. 
Yet, I would like to understand how mankind through it development has 
invented integers. How comp would help to answer this?


Evgenii

Evgenii






p. 83 Suppose now that science gives us a model which putatively
represents the world in full detail. Suppose even we believe that
this is so.


With comp it is so, for the realm. But it is a nonsense to use it to
 represent the world in full detail, at least not effectively.  The
 expression world in full detail is very ambiguous.




Suppose we regard ourselves as knowing that it is so.


This is just impossible.



Then still, before we can go on to use that model, to make
predictions and build bridges, we must locate ourselves with
respect to that model. So apparently we need to have something in
addition to what science has given us here. The extra is the
self-ascription of location.


The taking into account of the first person view. yes, that is
important, but it might not be an extra. In comp it is a given.




p. 83 Have we now landed in a dilemma for our view of science as
paradigmatically objective? If we say that the self-ascription is a
 simple, objective statement of fact, then science is inevitably
doomed to be objectively incomplete. If instead we say it is
something irreducibly subjective, then we have also admitted a
limit to objectivity, we have let subjectivity into science.


Given that with comp both epistemology and physics are objectively
 *subjective* (first person plural) construct (coherent person
dreams), that is hardly astonishing. Van Fraassen seems just
discovering a part of the difficulty of physicalism, by becoming
aware of the importance of the points of view of the creature
described by the theory. With comp it should be quickly clear that
subjectivity is important, even in the making of the physical
laws.

Bruno





Evgenii -- http://blog.rudnyi.ru/tag/bas-c-van-fraassen

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Re: Computationalism -- Leibniz's new paradigm for science

2012-10-30 Thread Richard Ruquist
Roger,

Mind and matter can interact if they both contain BECs.
Richard

On Tue, Oct 30, 2012 at 8:07 AM, Roger Clough rclo...@verizon.net wrote:
 Computationalism and downward causation -- Leibniz's new paradigm for
 science

 The new, strictly logical, Leibnizian view of the universe is
 that the new paradigm- computationalism-- is thoroughly
 logically based, while conventional science is based on appearances,
 not that the appearances are wrong.

 In a previous email I explained how all of today's science is based
 on the logical error that mind and matter can directly
 interact, which is false, because they are two different
 substances, completely foreign to one another.

 The more strictly logical view, as Leibniz showed, is that
 the interaction only appears to happen.
 But the strictly logical Leibnizian view is that upward
 causation is only an appearance. All true causation is
 actually downward (Platonic).

 This new understanding not only allows today's scientific
 results to be apparently true, but opens the door to
 previously unexplainable phenomena such as gravity.

 Another way to say this is that, although they may
 appear to be a posteriori (in the world), all causes
 are actually theoretical (a priori). Numbers being
 a priori (given), this gives a completely new
 solidity to computationalism.



 Roger Clough

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Re: All is well

2012-10-30 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi Roger,

On 30 Oct 2012, at 11:41, Roger Clough wrote:



The storm has passed and all is well.
Luckily Rockville was hardly affected by the storm.
My electric power never even went out.

I hope everybody else is OK also.


Sandy seems impressive, but not that catastrophical, except for the  
victims  of course.

Glad everything is OK for you.

Best,

Bruno





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10/30/2012
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen

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Re: Self-ascription and Perfect Model Model

2012-10-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Oct 2012, at 12:53, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


On 30.10.2012 11:26 Bruno Marchal said the following:


On 29 Oct 2012, at 18:21, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


Some more quotes from From Scientific Representation: Paradoxes of
Perspective by Bas C Van Fraassen.

p. 45 Agreed, we cannot demonstrate that in principle, as a matter
of logic, mathematical modeling must inevitably be a distortion of
what is modeled, although models actually constructed cannot have
perfection reachable in principle. But on the other hand, the
conviction that perfect modeling is possible in principle - what
Paul Teller calls the perfect model model - does not have an a
priori justification either!


That depends on the assumption we can make. Comp allows perfect
model, as it makes the mind into an entity mathematically
associated to perfect mathematical notion, like computation (thanks
to Church thesis).


I am afraid that you talk about another sort of a model. Van  
Fraassen starts from a human being and he considers (also  
historically) how scientific modeling is working.


OK. What I said is not incompatible with this. It even give more sense  
to this. It gives an example of perfect model model, for the ultimate  
reality, with the explanation why this is impossible from the inside  
of that reality. We have to trust ourselves, somehow, and be skeptical  
with any authoritative arguments.





Provided you assume comp, you still have to explain how science is  
working in a human society. I am not sure if I understand how comp  
could help at this point.


It does not, except that it warns us that a big part of it cannot been  
studied formally, as comp does not reduce humans, or any entity more  
complex than a universal machine, to any normative theory. It can only  
encourage that kind of studies. But the big picture can help to make  
it fits with other source of knowledge.






You talk for example about integers as a framework for everything.  
Fine. Yet, I would like to understand how mankind through it  
development has invented integers. How comp would help to answer this?


Comp might not been able to answer that, in any better way than, say,  
evolution theory. Numbers are important in nature, as everything is  
born from them, and to survive with bigger chance, the universal  
numbers, us in particular, have to be able to recognize them, and  
manipulate them accordingly. Comp is not a theory aimed at explaining  
everything directly. It is just, at the start, an hypothesis in  
philosophy of mind, and then it appears that it reduces the mind-body  
problem to an explanation of quanta and qualia from arithmetic/ 
computer science.


Its main value in the human science, is, imo, that he forces us to be  
more modest, and more aware that we know about nothing, if only  
because we have wrongly separate the human science (including  
theology, afterlife, metaphysics)  and the exact sciences. Comp  
provides a way to reunite them. Comp can be seen as an abstract corpus  
callosum making a bridge between the formal and the informal, before  
bridging mind and matter.


Bruno





Evgenii

Evgenii






p. 83 Suppose now that science gives us a model which putatively
represents the world in full detail. Suppose even we believe that
this is so.


With comp it is so, for the realm. But it is a nonsense to use it to
represent the world in full detail, at least not effectively.  The
expression world in full detail is very ambiguous.




Suppose we regard ourselves as knowing that it is so.


This is just impossible.



Then still, before we can go on to use that model, to make
predictions and build bridges, we must locate ourselves with
respect to that model. So apparently we need to have something in
addition to what science has given us here. The extra is the
self-ascription of location.


The taking into account of the first person view. yes, that is
important, but it might not be an extra. In comp it is a given.




p. 83 Have we now landed in a dilemma for our view of science as
paradigmatically objective? If we say that the self-ascription is a
simple, objective statement of fact, then science is inevitably
doomed to be objectively incomplete. If instead we say it is
something irreducibly subjective, then we have also admitted a
limit to objectivity, we have let subjectivity into science.


Given that with comp both epistemology and physics are objectively
*subjective* (first person plural) construct (coherent person
dreams), that is hardly astonishing. Van Fraassen seems just
discovering a part of the difficulty of physicalism, by becoming
aware of the importance of the points of view of the creature
described by the theory. With comp it should be quickly clear that
subjectivity is important, even in the making of the physical
laws.

Bruno





Evgenii -- http://blog.rudnyi.ru/tag/bas-c-van-fraassen

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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread meekerdb

On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of theorems apply only to the 
concepts of numbers and their constructions, not to numbers themselves.


Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them for some machine/numbers. 
If not, comp does not even makes sense.


So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two equals one plus one. 
does.

Brent

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Re: Self-ascription and Perfect Model Model

2012-10-30 Thread meekerdb

On 10/30/2012 4:45 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

On 29.10.2012 20:44 meekerdb said the following:

On 10/29/2012 11:33 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

On 29.10.2012 19:21 meekerdb said the following:

On 10/29/2012 10:21 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

Some more quotes from From Scientific Representation: Paradoxes
of Perspective by Bas C Van Fraassen.

p. 45 Agreed, we cannot demonstrate that in principle, as a
matter of logic, mathematical modeling must inevitably be a
distortion of what is modeled, although models actually
constructed cannot have perfection reachable in principle. But
on the other hand, the conviction that perfect modeling is
possible in principle - what Paul Teller calls the perfect
model model - does not have an a priori justification
either!

p. 83 Suppose now that science gives us a model which
putatively represents the world in full detail. Suppose even we
believe that this is so. Suppose we regard ourselves as knowing
that it is so. Then still, before we can go on to use that
model, to make predictions and build bridges, we must locate
ourselves with respect to that model.


If the model is complete it must already include us - as well as
what we will think about it and do with it.  But then this will
run into Godelian incompleteness.  If it is true it will be
unprovable within the model.


The question would be how it should be done practically. Say let us
 imagine that such a model is the M-theory (I am still impressed by
 Grand Design by Hawking). How do I find myself in the M-theory?


In practice, which I'm sure you're familiar with, we don't 'locate
ourselves in the model'.  The model is in the objective world that we
 share with others who are also not in the model.  An engineer


In this chapter, Van Fraassen has considered a map as a model for a typical model. A map 
is in the objective world, as well as a scientific model, but to use the map one has to 
find out where on the map he/she is located. I hope that you agree with that.


I don't agree with it because it's obviously false.  I just looked a map to see how close 
Sandy came to my brother's home in Virginia.  I didn't need to locate myself on that map.


Brent



Yet, now this process, located oneself on a map, could be extended to other scientific 
models. For example to those that engineers employ in their practice. An engineer has a 
scientific model on one hand and real things on the other hand. Similarly it is 
necessary to relate a model and reality and one needs a human being to achieve this goal.


Along this line of thought we come to a perfect model model that also is in the 
objective world, as for example the M-theory. The question however remains.


Evgenii


designing an airliner considers the airliner carrying other people,
but he doesn't model them completely - only their weight, size, use
of the restrooms, entertainment, etc.  He doesn't try to model their
inner thoughts unrelated to the airliner.  So a model, to be useful,
cannot be complete because part of its usefulness is that it can be
communicated and must be 3p, as Bruno would say.  That's not to say
that someone's inner thoughts cannot be in some model (the often are
in novels), but only that they can't be in that same person's model;
just like a Godel sentence unprovable in one system can be provable
in some other axiom system.

Brent





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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of theorems  
apply only to the concepts of numbers and their constructions, not  
to numbers themselves.


Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them for  
some machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even makes sense.


So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two equals one  
plus one. does.


Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using this to assert  
that the truth of, say  Two equals one plus one. depend on some  
numbers or subject having to discover it, or prove it.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 12:38 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
No? If they do not have something equivalent to concepts, how can 
they dream?


Yes, the universal numbers can have concept.

Dear Bruno,

Let's start over. Please plain in detail what is a universal number 
and how it (and not ordinary numbers) have concepts or 1p.


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Re: Communicability

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 12:38 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

We need only to agree on the axioms:

x + 0 = x
x + s(y) = s(x + y)

 x *0 = 0
 x*s(y) = x*y + x

together with some axioms on equality.

Dear Bruno,

How do you explain the communicability of the meaning of these 
axioms? You have written words like sharable. Is that the explanation? 
How does it work?


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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 12:51 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of theorems 
apply only to the concepts of numbers and their constructions, not 
to numbers themselves.


Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them for 
some machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even makes sense.


So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two equals one 
plus one. does.


Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using this to assert 
that the truth of, say  Two equals one plus one. depend on some 
numbers or subject having to discover it, or prove it.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/



Dear Bruno,

My point is that a number is not a capable of being an ontological 
primitive *and* having some particular set of values and meanings. A 
statement, such as 2 = 1+1 or two equals one plus one, are said 
truthfully to have the same meaning because there are multiple and 
separable entities that can have the agreement on the truth value. In 
the absence of the ability to judge a statement independently of any 
particular entity capable of understanding the statement, there is no 
meaning to the concept that the statement is true or false. To insist 
that a statement has a meaning and is true (or false) in an ontological 
condition where no entities capable of judging the meaning, begs the 
question of meaningfulness!

   You are taking for granted some things that your arguments disallow.

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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

  On 10/30/2012 12:51 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:

  On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

  My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of theorems apply
 only to the concepts of numbers and their constructions, not to numbers
 themselves.


  Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them for some
 machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even makes sense.


 So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two equals one plus
 one. does.


  Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
 But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using this to assert that
 the truth of, say  Two equals one plus one. depend on some numbers or
 subject having to discover it, or prove it.

  Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


  Dear Bruno,

 My point is that a number is not a capable of being an ontological
 primitive *and* having some particular set of values and meanings. A
 statement, such as 2 = 1+1 or two equals one plus one, are said truthfully
 to have the same meaning because there are multiple and separable entities
 that can have the agreement on the truth value. In the absence of the
 ability to judge a statement independently of any particular entity capable
 of understanding the statement, there is no meaning to the concept that
 the statement is true or false. To insist that a statement has a meaning
 and is true (or false) in an ontological condition where no entities
 capable of judging the meaning, begs the question of meaningfulness!
You are taking for granted some things that your arguments disallow.


Hmm... but that's what arithmetical realism is all about... If you deny
meaning to '17 is prime' absent an entity which gives to it its meaning...
then you're simply negating arithmetical realism and with it
computationalism (ie: consciousness is emulable qua computatio).

Quentin

 --
 Onward!

 Stephen

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Re: Against Mechanism

2012-10-30 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/10/30 John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com

 On Tue, Oct 30, 2012  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

   So you were not answering the question in my post, which can be sum
 up: are you OK with step 3, and what about step 4?


 I don't even remember what step 2 was, I found a blunder in your proof so
 I didn't find it very memorable.

  You are the one pretending seeing a problem, and as many notice, you
 just keep not answering the question. You did understand well the 1-3
 distinction, so it is utterly not understandable why you remain stuck on
 this.


 I do remember that in one of the steps in your proof you made a big deal
 about 1P view, that is to say the first person view, but you don't make
 it at all clear exactly who is the person that is having this view, the you
 before the duplication or the you after the duplication? And this is
 supposed to be a valid mathematical proof as rigorous as that discipline
 demands, but it is not.

 Before the duplication the you is the Helsinki man, after the duplication
 the you is the Helsinki man and the Washington man and the Moscow man. What
 is the probability the Helsinki man will write in his diary that he sees
 Washington? 0%.  What is the probability the Helsinki man will write in his
 diary he sees Moscow? 0%. What is the probability the Helsinki man will
 write in his diary he sees Helsinki? 100%. What is the probability the
 Washington man will write in his diary he sees Washington? 100%. What is
 the probability the Washington man will write in his diary he sees Moscow?
 0%. And if the duplicating process destroys the Helsinki man then the
 probability the Helsinki man will write anything at all in his diary is 0%.

 If there is any indeterminacy in all this, that is to say if there are
 many potential correct answers, it's just because you are asking a
 incomplete question; if you don't specify  exactly who you is then asking
 for a probability number involving you is like asking How long is a
 piece of string? or How much is 2 + anything?; any number is as good a
 answer as any other.

  I can ask you another question: how do you predict what you will
 subjectively see, when doing an experience of physics


 In most physics experiments, even very advanced ones at CERN, the
 experimenter himself is not duplicated so in the question What particle do
 you expect to see? it's clear who you is; but in your thought experiment
 who is you  is not obvious because YOU have been duplicated.


Yet in MWI... YOU have been duplicated too *but* the probabilities of each
*you* version seeing the particle in a specified state are not the same...
hence the expectation question of the *you* before  is meaningful.

Quentin



   John K Clark


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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 1:43 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
mailto:stephe...@charter.net


On 10/30/2012 12:51 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of
theorems apply only to the concepts of numbers and their
constructions, not to numbers themselves.


Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them
for some machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even makes sense.


So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two equals
one plus one. does.


Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using this to
assert that the truth of, say  Two equals one plus one. depend
on some numbers or subject having to discover it, or prove it.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/



Dear Bruno,

My point is that a number is not a capable of being an
ontological primitive *and* having some particular set of values
and meanings. A statement, such as 2 = 1+1 or two equals one plus
one, are said truthfully to have the same meaning because there
are multiple and separable entities that can have the agreement on
the truth value. In the absence of the ability to judge a
statement independently of any particular entity capable of
understanding the statement, there is no meaning to the concept
that the statement is true or false. To insist that a statement
has a meaning and is true (or false) in an ontological condition
where no entities capable of judging the meaning, begs the
question of meaningfulness!
   You are taking for granted some things that your arguments
disallow.


Hmm... but that's what arithmetical realism is all about... If you 
deny meaning to '17 is prime' absent an entity which gives to it its 
meaning... then you're simply negating arithmetical realism and with 
it computationalism (ie: consciousness is emulable qua computatio).


Quentin


Hi Quentin,

Well, therefore I must reject arithmetical realism as unreal by 
definition! Individual entities are incapable of giving meaning to 
things, be they puppies or prime numbers. It requires an *agreement 
between many entities* to have meaningfulness. I claim that it takes at 
least three entities...


 If objects that are proposed to be real are not observable by 
anyone then they don't exist! Where am I going off the rails? I think 
that the problem here is that the distinction between not observable by 
any particular entity and not observable by any entity are being 
confused. I am reminded of Einstein's silly quip about the Moon still 
existing even if he was not looking at it. The poor old fellow neglected 
to notice that he was not the only entity that was capable of being 
affected by the presence or non-presence of the Moon!


You might have seen my definition of Reality. Do you recall it?

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Onward!

Stephen

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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

  On 10/30/2012 1:43 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

  On 10/30/2012 12:51 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:

  On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

  My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of theorems apply
 only to the concepts of numbers and their constructions, not to numbers
 themselves.


  Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them for some
 machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even makes sense.


 So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two equals one plus
 one. does.


  Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
 But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using this to assert that
 the truth of, say  Two equals one plus one. depend on some numbers or
 subject having to discover it, or prove it.

  Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


   Dear Bruno,

 My point is that a number is not a capable of being an ontological
 primitive *and* having some particular set of values and meanings. A
 statement, such as 2 = 1+1 or two equals one plus one, are said truthfully
 to have the same meaning because there are multiple and separable entities
 that can have the agreement on the truth value. In the absence of the
 ability to judge a statement independently of any particular entity capable
 of understanding the statement, there is no meaning to the concept that
 the statement is true or false. To insist that a statement has a meaning
 and is true (or false) in an ontological condition where no entities
 capable of judging the meaning, begs the question of meaningfulness!
You are taking for granted some things that your arguments disallow.


 Hmm... but that's what arithmetical realism is all about... If you deny
 meaning to '17 is prime' absent an entity which gives to it its meaning...
 then you're simply negating arithmetical realism and with it
 computationalism (ie: consciousness is emulable qua computatio).

 Quentin

  Hi Quentin,

 Well, therefore I must reject arithmetical realism as unreal by
 definition! Individual entities are incapable of giving meaning to
 things, be they puppies or prime numbers. It requires an *agreement between
 many entities* to have meaningfulness. I claim that it takes at least three
 entities...

  If objects that are proposed to be real are not observable by
 anyone then they don't exist! Where am I going off the rails? I think that
 the problem here is that the distinction between not observable by any
 particular entity and not observable by any entity are being confused. I
 am reminded of Einstein's silly quip about the Moon still existing even if
 he was not looking at it. The poor old fellow neglected to notice that he
 was not the only entity that was capable of being affected by the presence
 or non-presence of the Moon!

 You might have seen my definition of Reality. Do you recall it?



So in your view, no humans (no consciouness) implies... 17 is prime or not
is not meaningful ? Only consciousness gives meaning to thing... yet it
seems absurd that truth value would disappear without consciousness.

Quentin

 --
 Onward!

 Stephen

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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 2:00 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
mailto:stephe...@charter.net


On 10/30/2012 1:43 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net
mailto:stephe...@charter.net

On 10/30/2012 12:51 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of
theorems apply only to the concepts of numbers and their
constructions, not to numbers themselves.


Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing
them for some machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even
makes sense.


So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two
equals one plus one. does.


Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using this to
assert that the truth of, say  Two equals one plus one.
depend on some numbers or subject having to discover it, or
prove it.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/



Dear Bruno,

My point is that a number is not a capable of being an
ontological primitive *and* having some particular set of
values and meanings. A statement, such as 2 = 1+1 or two
equals one plus one, are said truthfully to have the same
meaning because there are multiple and separable entities
that can have the agreement on the truth value. In the
absence of the ability to judge a statement independently of
any particular entity capable of understanding the
statement, there is no meaning to the concept that the
statement is true or false. To insist that a statement has a
meaning and is true (or false) in an ontological condition
where no entities capable of judging the meaning, begs the
question of meaningfulness!
   You are taking for granted some things that your arguments
disallow.


Hmm... but that's what arithmetical realism is all about... If
you deny meaning to '17 is prime' absent an entity which gives to
it its meaning... then you're simply negating arithmetical
realism and with it computationalism (ie: consciousness is
emulable qua computatio).

Quentin


Hi Quentin,

Well, therefore I must reject arithmetical realism as unreal
by definition! Individual entities are incapable of giving
meaning to things, be they puppies or prime numbers. It requires
an *agreement between many entities* to have meaningfulness. I
claim that it takes at least three entities...

 If objects that are proposed to be real are not observable
by anyone then they don't exist! Where am I going off the rails? I
think that the problem here is that the distinction between not
observable by any particular entity and not observable by any
entity are being confused. I am reminded of Einstein's silly quip
about the Moon still existing even if he was not looking at it.
The poor old fellow neglected to notice that he was not the only
entity that was capable of being affected by the presence or
non-presence of the Moon!

You might have seen my definition of Reality. Do you recall it?



So in your view, no humans (no consciouness) implies... 17 is prime or 
not is not meaningful ? Only consciousness gives meaning to thing... 
yet it seems absurd that truth value would disappear without 
consciousness.


Quentin


Unless multiple entities can agree that the sequence of symbols 17 
is prime is an indicator of some particular mathematical object and one 
of its particular properties, then how does 17 is prime come to mean 
anything at all? Can you stop subconsciously assuming an invisible 
observer whose sole job is to observe everything from infinity? It seems 
that you cannot if what I am writing is mysterious to you!
How is it not absurd that meaningfulness exists in the absence of 
anyone that can apprehend it? Please note that I am not considering the 
absence of any one entity; I am considering the absence of all possible 
entities in the degenerativeness or vanishing of meaningfulness. I am 
asking Why is it OK to think that meaningfulness exists in the absence 
of any means to determine it?.



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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

  On 10/30/2012 2:00 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

  On 10/30/2012 1:43 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

  On 10/30/2012 12:51 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:

  On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

  My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of theorems
 apply only to the concepts of numbers and their constructions, not to
 numbers themselves.


  Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them for some
 machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even makes sense.


 So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two equals one
 plus one. does.


  Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
 But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using this to assert that
 the truth of, say  Two equals one plus one. depend on some numbers or
 subject having to discover it, or prove it.

  Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


   Dear Bruno,

 My point is that a number is not a capable of being an ontological
 primitive *and* having some particular set of values and meanings. A
 statement, such as 2 = 1+1 or two equals one plus one, are said truthfully
 to have the same meaning because there are multiple and separable entities
 that can have the agreement on the truth value. In the absence of the
 ability to judge a statement independently of any particular entity capable
 of understanding the statement, there is no meaning to the concept that
 the statement is true or false. To insist that a statement has a meaning
 and is true (or false) in an ontological condition where no entities
 capable of judging the meaning, begs the question of meaningfulness!
You are taking for granted some things that your arguments disallow.


 Hmm... but that's what arithmetical realism is all about... If you deny
 meaning to '17 is prime' absent an entity which gives to it its meaning...
 then you're simply negating arithmetical realism and with it
 computationalism (ie: consciousness is emulable qua computatio).

 Quentin

  Hi Quentin,

 Well, therefore I must reject arithmetical realism as unreal by
 definition! Individual entities are incapable of giving meaning to
 things, be they puppies or prime numbers. It requires an *agreement between
 many entities* to have meaningfulness. I claim that it takes at least three
 entities...

  If objects that are proposed to be real are not observable by
 anyone then they don't exist! Where am I going off the rails? I think that
 the problem here is that the distinction between not observable by any
 particular entity and not observable by any entity are being confused. I
 am reminded of Einstein's silly quip about the Moon still existing even if
 he was not looking at it. The poor old fellow neglected to notice that he
 was not the only entity that was capable of being affected by the presence
 or non-presence of the Moon!

 You might have seen my definition of Reality. Do you recall it?



 So in your view, no humans (no consciouness) implies... 17 is prime or not
 is not meaningful ? Only consciousness gives meaning to thing... yet it
 seems absurd that truth value would disappear without consciousness.

 Quentin


 Unless multiple entities can agree that the sequence of symbols 17 is
 prime is an indicator of some particular mathematical object and one of
 its particular properties, then how does 17 is prime come to mean
 anything at all? Can you stop subconsciously assuming an invisible observer
 whose sole job is to observe everything from infinity? It seems that you
 cannot if what I am writing is mysterious to you!
 How is it not absurd that meaningfulness exists in the absence of
 anyone that can apprehend it? Please note that I am not considering the
 absence of any one entity; I am considering the absence of all possible
 entities in the degenerativeness or vanishing of meaningfulness. I am
 asking Why is it OK to think that meaningfulness exists in the absence of
 any means to determine it?.


Well what you're explaining just feels like the egg and the chicken...
meaning is an internal view, if computationalism is true, observer and
meaning arise through computation... computation would be ontologically
real and primitive.

Quentin



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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread meekerdb

On 10/30/2012 10:39 AM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 10/30/2012 12:51 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of theorems apply only to the 
concepts of numbers and their constructions, not to numbers themselves.


Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them for some 
machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even makes sense.


So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two equals one plus one. 
does.


Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using this to assert that the truth of, 
say  Two equals one plus one. depend on some numbers or subject having to discover 
it, or prove it.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/



Dear Bruno,

My point is that a number is not a capable of being an ontological primitive *and* 
having some particular set of values and meanings. A statement, such as 2 = 1+1 or two 
equals one plus one, are said truthfully to have the same meaning because there are 
multiple and separable entities that can have the agreement on the truth value. In the 
absence of the ability to judge a statement independently of any particular entity 
capable of understanding the statement,


I think you are confusing the tokens 2 = 1+1 with the proposition 2 = 1+1.  The former 
requires someone who understands the notation to interpret it, but the latter is the 
interpretation, i.e. the concept.  A concept has meaning by definition, otherwise we say 
we cannot conceptualize it, e.g. klognee flarbles myrable, and so there is nothing to 
assign a truth value to.


there is no meaning to the concept that the statement is true or false. To insist that a 
statement has a meaning and is true (or false) in an ontological condition where no 
entities capable of judging the meaning, begs the question of meaningfulness!


That sounds like idealism, but whatever it is sll theories that will explain the world to 
us are going to have to apply to times and places where there are no humans.  So I guess 
the question is whether 2=1+1 means to you what it means to the rest of us.  If it does it 
can be part of our explanation.


Brent


   You are taking for granted some things that your arguments disallow.
--
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Stephen
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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread meekerdb

On 10/30/2012 10:43 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
mailto:stephe...@charter.net

On 10/30/2012 12:51 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of theorems apply 
only to
the concepts of numbers and their constructions, not to numbers themselves.


Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them for some
machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even makes sense.


So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two equals one plus 
one. does.


Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using this to assert that 
the truth
of, say  Two equals one plus one. depend on some numbers or subject 
having to
discover it, or prove it.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/



Dear Bruno,

My point is that a number is not a capable of being an ontological 
primitive
*and* having some particular set of values and meanings. A statement, such 
as 2 =
1+1 or two equals one plus one, are said truthfully to have the same 
meaning because
there are multiple and separable entities that can have the agreement on 
the truth
value. In the absence of the ability to judge a statement independently of 
any
particular entity capable of understanding the statement, there is no 
meaning to
the concept that the statement is true or false. To insist that a statement 
has a
meaning and is true (or false) in an ontological condition where no 
entities capable
of judging the meaning, begs the question of meaningfulness!
   You are taking for granted some things that your arguments disallow.


Hmm... but that's what arithmetical realism is all about... If you deny meaning to '17 
is prime' absent an entity which gives to it its meaning... then you're simply negating 
arithmetical realism and with it computationalism (ie: consciousness is emulable qua 
computatio).


I don't see why denying mathematical realism would entail saying no to the doctor.  The 
doctor isn't proposing to replace part of you brain with a piece of Platonia, he has a 
real physical device to implant.


Brent

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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread meekerdb

On 10/30/2012 11:00 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
mailto:stephe...@charter.net

On 10/30/2012 1:43 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
mailto:stephe...@charter.net

On 10/30/2012 12:51 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of theorems apply
only to the concepts of numbers and their constructions, not to numbers
themselves.


Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them for some
machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even makes sense.


So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two equals one 
plus
one. does.


Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using this to assert 
that the
truth of, say  Two equals one plus one. depend on some numbers or 
subject
having to discover it, or prove it.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/



Dear Bruno,

My point is that a number is not a capable of being an ontological
primitive *and* having some particular set of values and meanings. A 
statement,
such as 2 = 1+1 or two equals one plus one, are said truthfully to have 
the
same meaning because there are multiple and separable entities that can 
have
the agreement on the truth value. In the absence of the ability to 
judge a
statement independently of any particular entity capable of 
understanding the
statement, there is no meaning to the concept that the statement is 
true or
false. To insist that a statement has a meaning and is true (or false) 
in an
ontological condition where no entities capable of judging the meaning, 
begs
the question of meaningfulness!
   You are taking for granted some things that your arguments disallow.


Hmm... but that's what arithmetical realism is all about... If you deny 
meaning to
'17 is prime' absent an entity which gives to it its meaning... then you're 
simply
negating arithmetical realism and with it computationalism (ie: 
consciousness is
emulable qua computatio).

Quentin


Hi Quentin,

Well, therefore I must reject arithmetical realism as unreal by 
definition!
Individual entities are incapable of giving meaning to things, be they 
puppies or
prime numbers. It requires an *agreement between many entities* to have
meaningfulness. I claim that it takes at least three entities...

 If objects that are proposed to be real are not observable by anyone 
then
they don't exist! Where am I going off the rails? I think that the problem 
here is
that the distinction between not observable by any particular entity and 
not
observable by any entity are being confused. I am reminded of Einstein's 
silly quip
about the Moon still existing even if he was not looking at it. The poor 
old fellow
neglected to notice that he was not the only entity that was capable of 
being
affected by the presence or non-presence of the Moon!

You might have seen my definition of Reality. Do you recall it?



So in your view, no humans (no consciouness) implies... 17 is prime or not is not 
meaningful ? Only consciousness gives meaning to thing... yet it seems absurd that truth 
value would disappear without consciousness.


If there were no humans, no human level consciousness, would it still be true that Holmes 
assistant is Watson?


Brent

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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread meekerdb

On 10/30/2012 11:22 AM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 10/30/2012 2:00 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
mailto:stephe...@charter.net

On 10/30/2012 1:43 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
mailto:stephe...@charter.net

On 10/30/2012 12:51 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of theorems apply
only to the concepts of numbers and their constructions, not to numbers
themselves.


Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them for some
machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even makes sense.


So your are agreeing?  Two has no truth value, but Two equals one 
plus
one. does.


Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using this to assert 
that the
truth of, say  Two equals one plus one. depend on some numbers or 
subject
having to discover it, or prove it.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/



Dear Bruno,

My point is that a number is not a capable of being an ontological
primitive *and* having some particular set of values and meanings. A
statement, such as 2 = 1+1 or two equals one plus one, are said 
truthfully to
have the same meaning because there are multiple and separable entities 
that
can have the agreement on the truth value. In the absence of the 
ability to
judge a statement independently of any particular entity capable of
understanding the statement, there is no meaning to the concept that 
the
statement is true or false. To insist that a statement has a meaning 
and is
true (or false) in an ontological condition where no entities capable of
judging the meaning, begs the question of meaningfulness!
   You are taking for granted some things that your arguments disallow.


Hmm... but that's what arithmetical realism is all about... If you deny 
meaning to
'17 is prime' absent an entity which gives to it its meaning... then you're 
simply
negating arithmetical realism and with it computationalism (ie: 
consciousness is
emulable qua computatio).

Quentin


Hi Quentin,

Well, therefore I must reject arithmetical realism as unreal by 
definition!
Individual entities are incapable of giving meaning to things, be they 
puppies or
prime numbers. It requires an *agreement between many entities* to have
meaningfulness. I claim that it takes at least three entities...

 If objects that are proposed to be real are not observable by anyone 
then
they don't exist! Where am I going off the rails? I think that the problem 
here is
that the distinction between not observable by any particular entity and 
not
observable by any entity are being confused. I am reminded of Einstein's 
silly
quip about the Moon still existing even if he was not looking at it. The 
poor old
fellow neglected to notice that he was not the only entity that was capable 
of
being affected by the presence or non-presence of the Moon!

You might have seen my definition of Reality. Do you recall it?



So in your view, no humans (no consciouness) implies... 17 is prime or not is not 
meaningful ? Only consciousness gives meaning to thing... yet it seems absurd that 
truth value would disappear without consciousness.


Quentin


Unless multiple entities can agree that the sequence of symbols 17 is prime is an 
indicator of some particular mathematical object and one of its particular properties, 
then how does 17 is prime come to mean anything at all? 


I agree with that.  But you're talking about the tokens 17 is prime not the concept that 
17 is prime.  Could not a person who grew up alone on an island realize that 17 has no 
divisors, and he could even invent a private language in which he could write down Peano's 
axioms.


Brent

Can you stop subconsciously assuming an invisible observer whose sole job is to observe 
everything from infinity? It seems that you cannot if what I am writing is mysterious to 
you!
How is it not absurd that meaningfulness exists in the absence of anyone that can 
apprehend it? Please note that I am not considering the absence of any one entity; I am 
considering the absence of all possible entities in the degenerativeness or vanishing of 
meaningfulness. I am asking Why is it OK to think that meaningfulness exists in the 
absence of any means to determine it?.



--
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Stephen
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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 2:27 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
mailto:stephe...@charter.net


On 10/30/2012 2:00 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net
mailto:stephe...@charter.net

On 10/30/2012 1:43 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/10/30 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net
mailto:stephe...@charter.net

On 10/30/2012 12:51 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 30 Oct 2012, at 17:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/30/2012 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

My argument is that concepts of truth and
provability of theorems apply only to the concepts
of numbers and their constructions, not to numbers
themselves.


Truth applies to proposition, or sentences
representing them for some machine/numbers. If not,
comp does not even makes sense.


So your are agreeing? Two has no truth value, but
Two equals one plus one. does.


Yes I agree. It seems I insisted on this a lot.
But in this context, it seems that Stephen was using
this to assert that the truth of, say  Two equals one
plus one. depend on some numbers or subject having to
discover it, or prove it.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/



Dear Bruno,

My point is that a number is not a capable of being
an ontological primitive *and* having some particular
set of values and meanings. A statement, such as 2 = 1+1
or two equals one plus one, are said truthfully to have
the same meaning because there are multiple and
separable entities that can have the agreement on the
truth value. In the absence of the ability to judge a
statement independently of any particular entity capable
of understanding the statement, there is no meaning to
the concept that the statement is true or false. To
insist that a statement has a meaning and is true (or
false) in an ontological condition where no entities
capable of judging the meaning, begs the question of
meaningfulness!
   You are taking for granted some things that your
arguments disallow.


Hmm... but that's what arithmetical realism is all about...
If you deny meaning to '17 is prime' absent an entity which
gives to it its meaning... then you're simply negating
arithmetical realism and with it computationalism (ie:
consciousness is emulable qua computatio).

Quentin


Hi Quentin,

Well, therefore I must reject arithmetical realism as
unreal by definition! Individual entities are incapable of
giving meaning to things, be they puppies or prime numbers.
It requires an *agreement between many entities* to have
meaningfulness. I claim that it takes at least three entities...

 If objects that are proposed to be real are not
observable by anyone then they don't exist! Where am I going
off the rails? I think that the problem here is that the
distinction between not observable by any particular entity
and not observable by any entity are being confused. I am
reminded of Einstein's silly quip about the Moon still
existing even if he was not looking at it. The poor old
fellow neglected to notice that he was not the only entity
that was capable of being affected by the presence or
non-presence of the Moon!

You might have seen my definition of Reality. Do you
recall it?



So in your view, no humans (no consciouness) implies... 17 is
prime or not is not meaningful ? Only consciousness gives meaning
to thing... yet it seems absurd that truth value would disappear
without consciousness.

Quentin


Unless multiple entities can agree that the sequence of
symbols 17 is prime is an indicator of some particular
mathematical object and one of its particular properties, then how
does 17 is prime come to mean anything at all? Can you stop
subconsciously assuming an invisible observer whose sole job is to
observe everything from infinity? It seems that you cannot if what
I am writing is mysterious to you!
How is it not absurd that meaningfulness exists in the absence
of anyone that can apprehend it? Please note that I am not
considering the absence of any one entity; I am considering the
absence of all possible entities in the degenerativeness or
vanishing of meaningfulness. I am asking Why is it OK to think
that meaningfulness exists in the absence of any means to
determine it?.



Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 2:50 PM, meekerdb wrote:
I think you are confusing the tokens 2 = 1+1 with the proposition 2 
= 1+1.  The former requires someone who understands the notation to 
interpret it, but the latter is the interpretation, i.e. the concept.  
A concept has meaning by definition, otherwise we say we cannot 
conceptualize it, e.g. klognee flarbles myrable, and so there is 
nothing to assign a truth value to.


 Dear Brent,

What is it that distinguishes between tokens and propositions?



there is no meaning to the concept that the statement is true or 
false. To insist that a statement has a meaning and is true (or 
false) in an ontological condition where no entities capable of 
judging the meaning, begs the question of meaningfulness!


That sounds like idealism, but whatever it is sll theories that will 
explain the world to us are going to have to apply to times and places 
where there are no humans.  So I guess the question is whether 2=1+1 
means to you what it means to the rest of us.  If it does it can be 
part of our explanation.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Idealism
In philosophy, idealism is the group of philosophies which assert that 
reality, or reality as we can know it, is fundamentally mental, mentally 
constructed, or otherwise immaterial. Epistemologically, idealism 
manifests as a skepticism about the possibility of knowing any 
mind-independent thing. ... As an ontological doctrine, idealism goes 
further, asserting that all entities are composed of mind or spirit.[2] 
Idealism thus rejects physicalist and dualist theories that fail to 
ascribe priority to the mind. An extreme version of this idealism can 
exist in the philosophical notion of solipsism.


Does that seem like what I am claiming? NO! That is the wiki 
definition of Idealism, and I agree with that definition and its 
implications and I reject idealism.




Brent



--
Onward!

Stephen


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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 2:58 PM, meekerdb wrote:
If there were no humans, no human level consciousness, would it still 
be true that Holmes assistant is Watson?


Brent


If there there where no humans and no human level consciousness, 
what meaning would the sentence It is true that Holmes assistant is 
Watson have? It would be an empty syllogism at best for some non-human 
with non-human consciousness to evaluate.


--
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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 3:05 PM, meekerdb wrote:
[SPK] Unless multiple entities can agree that the sequence of symbols 
17 is prime is an indicator of some particular mathematical object 
and one of its particular properties, then how does 17 is prime 
come to mean anything at all? 


I agree with that.  But you're talking about the tokens 17 is prime 
not the concept that 17 is prime.  Could not a person who grew up 
alone on an island realize that 17 has no divisors, and he could even 
invent a private language in which he could write down Peano's axioms.


Why are you using such trivial and parochial framing for abstract 
questions? Why the reference to single individuals? Did you not 
understand that I am claiming that meaningfulness requires at least the 
possibility of interaction between many entities such that each can 
evaluate the truth value of a proposition and thus can truthfully claim 
to have knowledge of true statements?
A person that grew and died on a desert island may have discovered 
for itself that 17 objects cannot be divided into equal subsets, but our 
statements about that are mere figemnts of our imagination as we could 
know nothing objective and non-imaginative at all about that person. We 
are imagining ourselves to have powers that we simply do not have. We 
are not omniscient voyeurs of Reality and there is not anything that is.


--
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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread meekerdb

On 10/30/2012 1:53 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 10/30/2012 2:50 PM, meekerdb wrote:
I think you are confusing the tokens 2 = 1+1 with the proposition 2 = 1+1.  The 
former requires someone who understands the notation to interpret it, but the latter is 
the interpretation, i.e. the concept.  A concept has meaning by definition, otherwise 
we say we cannot conceptualize it, e.g. klognee flarbles myrable, and so there is 
nothing to assign a truth value to.


 Dear Brent,

What is it that distinguishes between tokens and propositions?


Tokens are the physical elements (e.g. letters, words, sounds) that are used to represent 
a proposition in a particular language.  The proposition is the abstracted meaning which 
is independent of particular language.  So Zwei est ein und ein. are tokens expressing 
the same proposition as Two equals one plus one. which is that 2=1+1.


Brent





there is no meaning to the concept that the statement is true or false. To insist that 
a statement has a meaning and is true (or false) in an ontological condition where no 
entities capable of judging the meaning, begs the question of meaningfulness!


That sounds like idealism, but whatever it is sll theories that will explain the world 
to us are going to have to apply to times and places where there are no humans.  So I 
guess the question is whether 2=1+1 means to you what it means to the rest of us.  If 
it does it can be part of our explanation.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Idealism
In philosophy, idealism is the group of philosophies which assert that reality, or 
reality as we can know it, is fundamentally mental, mentally constructed, or otherwise 
immaterial. Epistemologically, idealism manifests as a skepticism about the possibility 
of knowing any mind-independent thing. ... As an ontological doctrine, idealism goes 
further, asserting that all entities are composed of mind or spirit.[2] Idealism thus 
rejects physicalist and dualist theories that fail to ascribe priority to the mind. An 
extreme version of this idealism can exist in the philosophical notion of solipsism.


Does that seem like what I am claiming? NO! That is the wiki definition of Idealism, 
and I agree with that definition and its implications and I reject idealism.




Brent





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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread meekerdb

On 10/30/2012 2:03 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 10/30/2012 3:05 PM, meekerdb wrote:
[SPK] Unless multiple entities can agree that the sequence of symbols 17 is prime is 
an indicator of some particular mathematical object and one of its particular 
properties, then how does 17 is prime come to mean anything at all? 


I agree with that.  But you're talking about the tokens 17 is prime not the concept 
that 17 is prime.  Could not a person who grew up alone on an island realize that 17 
has no divisors, and he could even invent a private language in which he could write 
down Peano's axioms.


Why are you using such trivial and parochial framing for abstract questions? Why the 
reference to single individuals? Did you not understand that I am claiming that 
meaningfulness requires at least the possibility of interaction between many entities 
such that each can evaluate the truth value of a proposition and thus can truthfully 
claim to have knowledge of true statements?
A person that grew and died on a desert island may have discovered for itself that 
17 objects cannot be divided into equal subsets, 


So no additional entities are needed for a person know that 17 is prime and to express it 
symbollically.  You seem to contradict what you just wrote in the prior paragraph.


Brent



but our statements about that are mere figemnts of our imagination as we could know 
nothing objective and non-imaginative at all about that person. We are imagining 
ourselves to have powers that we simply do not have. We are not omniscient voyeurs of 
Reality and there is not anything that is.




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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 5:15 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 10/30/2012 1:53 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:


 Dear Brent,

What is it that distinguishes between tokens and propositions?


Tokens are the physical elements (e.g. letters, words, sounds) that 
are used to represent a proposition in a particular language.


What determines the map between the letters, words, sounds and the 
content of propositions?


The proposition is the abstracted meaning which is independent of 
particular language.


Does this independence do so far as to disallow for an arbitrary 
physical entity to know of it? Independence of abstractions from 
particular individuals is not independence from all.


  So Zwei est ein und ein. are tokens expressing the same 
proposition as Two equals one plus one. which is that 2=1+1. 


That is true only because multiple persons came to believe that it 
is true and acted to cause it to be true. Remove one person from the 
multiplicity and the meaning still is there. Remove all of them and the 
meaning vanishes.


--
Onward!

Stephen


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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread Stephen P. King

On 10/30/2012 5:21 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 10/30/2012 2:03 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 10/30/2012 3:05 PM, meekerdb wrote:
[SPK] Unless multiple entities can agree that the sequence of 
symbols 17 is prime is an indicator of some particular 
mathematical object and one of its particular properties, then how 
does 17 is prime come to mean anything at all? 


I agree with that.  But you're talking about the tokens 17 is 
prime not the concept that 17 is prime.  Could not a person who 
grew up alone on an island realize that 17 has no divisors, and he 
could even invent a private language in which he could write down 
Peano's axioms.


Why are you using such trivial and parochial framing for abstract 
questions? Why the reference to single individuals? Did you not 
understand that I am claiming that meaningfulness requires at least 
the possibility of interaction between many entities such that each 
can evaluate the truth value of a proposition and thus can truthfully 
claim to have knowledge of true statements?
A person that grew and died on a desert island may have 
discovered for itself that 17 objects cannot be divided into equal 
subsets, 


So no additional entities are needed for a person know that 17 is 
prime and to express it symbollically.  You seem to contradict what 
you just wrote in the prior paragraph.


Rubbish. You are projecting your concept of 17 is prime onto an 
imaginary entity and discussing the idea of that entity with me, that 
makes 3 people - not one; even if one - the person on the island - of 
them is just in your and my mind.





Brent



but our statements about that are mere figemnts of our imagination as 
we could know nothing objective and non-imaginative at all about that 
person. We are imagining ourselves to have powers that we simply do 
not have. We are not omniscient voyeurs of Reality and there is not 
anything that is.







--
Onward!

Stephen


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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread meekerdb

On 10/30/2012 2:27 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 10/30/2012 5:15 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 10/30/2012 1:53 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:


 Dear Brent,

What is it that distinguishes between tokens and propositions?


Tokens are the physical elements (e.g. letters, words, sounds) that are used to 
represent a proposition in a particular language.


What determines the map between the letters, words, sounds and the content of 
propositions?



The proposition is the abstracted meaning which is independent of particular 
language.


Does this independence do so far as to disallow for an arbitrary physical entity to 
know of it? Independence of abstractions from particular individuals is not independence 
from all.


  So Zwei est ein und ein. are tokens expressing the same proposition as Two equals 
one plus one. which is that 2=1+1. 


That


Which 'that' do you refer to, the tokens or the proposition.


is true only because multiple persons came to believe that it is true


You previously agreed that one person alone could come to know that 2=1+1 or 17 is prime 
and express it symbolically, i.e. in tokens.  So multiple persons are only necessary in 
order for the tokens to be used for communicating from one to another; which is the case 
whether the thing communicated is true or false.


Brent

and acted to cause it to be true. Remove one person from the multiplicity and the 
meaning still is there. Remove all of them and the meaning vanishes.




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Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm

2012-10-30 Thread meekerdb

On 10/30/2012 2:31 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 10/30/2012 5:21 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 10/30/2012 2:03 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 10/30/2012 3:05 PM, meekerdb wrote:
[SPK] Unless multiple entities can agree that the sequence of symbols 17 is prime 
is an indicator of some particular mathematical object and one of its particular 
properties, then how does 17 is prime come to mean anything at all? 


I agree with that.  But you're talking about the tokens 17 is prime not the concept 
that 17 is prime.  Could not a person who grew up alone on an island realize that 17 
has no divisors, and he could even invent a private language in which he could write 
down Peano's axioms.


Why are you using such trivial and parochial framing for abstract questions? Why 
the reference to single individuals? Did you not understand that I am claiming that 
meaningfulness requires at least the possibility of interaction between many entities 
such that each can evaluate the truth value of a proposition and thus can truthfully 
claim to have knowledge of true statements?
A person that grew and died on a desert island may have discovered for itself that 
17 objects cannot be divided into equal subsets, 


So no additional entities are needed for a person know that 17 is prime and to express 
it symbollically.  You seem to contradict what you just wrote in the prior paragraph.


Rubbish. You are projecting your concept of 17 is prime onto an imaginary entity 
and discussing the idea of that entity with me, that makes 3 people - not one; even if 
one - the person on the island - of them is just in your and my mind.


And another dozen people may be reading this.  What different does that make to the 
question of whether one person alone can know a mathematical truth?  You seem to agree 
that he can and yet deny it is meaningful at the same time.


Brent

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Re: Re: Solipsism = 1p

2012-10-30 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Tue, Oct 30, 2012 at 3:25 AM, Roger Clough rclo...@verizon.net wrote:
 Hi Stathis Papaioannou

 Building more complex structures out of simpler ones
 by a simple set of rules (or any set of rules) seems to violate the second law
 of thermodynamics.  Do you have a way around the second law ?

 What you are proposing seems to be goal-directed behavior
 by the gods of small things.

Total entropy increases but local entropy can decrease. It's why life
exists even though the universe is running down.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Downward causation- the correct paradigm for science

2012-10-30 Thread Russell Standish
Causation is one of those things that is higly context specific. One
mans cause is another's incidental factor.

Downward and upward causation are two ways of looking at the same
thing, serving different modes of explanation.

Although, the only downward causation I find believable is anthropic
selection.

Cheers

On Tue, Oct 30, 2012 at 07:12:54AM -0400, Roger Clough wrote:
 Downward causation- the correct paradigm for science
 
 Leibniz's metaphysics was created in the 17th century
 to overcome the logical error on which all current 
 science is founded, namely the acceptance that mind and 
 matter can directly interact through effective (upward) causation,
 although they are completely foreign to one another
 in nature.  The truth is, as Leibniz showed, that
 all causation is actually downward (caused by mind), 
 although it may appear, as in contemporary science,
 to be upward-caused. 
 
 This does not cause all of today's science, based
 on appearances, to be wrong, but it opens the door 
 to new (and now perfectly logical) scientific explanations 
 for unexplained phenomena such as gravity and the 
 interactions between brain and mind.  
 
 
 Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net 
 10/30/2012  
 Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen
 
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Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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