On Wednesday, August 31, 2016 at 11:17:22 AM UTC-6, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>
>
> On 30 Aug 2016, at 18:23, Alan Grayson wrote:
>
>
>
> On Friday, June 10, 2016 at 6:10:41 PM UTC-6, Bruce wrote:
>>
>> On 11/06/2016 3:56 am, Bruno Marchal wrote: 
>> > On 10 Jun 2016, at 03:02, Bruce Kellett wrote: 
>> >> On 10/06/2016 1:41 am, Bruno Marchal wrote: 
>> >>> On 09 Jun 2016, at 01:28, Bruce Kellett wrote: 
>> >>>> In other words, FPI is just the statement that Alice and Bob have 
>> >>>> to look to find out which of the (+,+'), (+,-'), (-,+'), or (-,-') 
>> >>>> worlds they are in. I don't think that actually adds anything 
>> >>>> significant to the discussion. 
>> >>> 
>> >>> That eliminates the physical spooky action at a distance which are 
>> >>> necessarily there in QM+collapse. 
>> >> 
>> >> You have yet to prove that -- assertion is not proof. 
>> > 
>> > By defining world by "closed for interaction", locality follows from 
>> > linearity. 
>>
>> Bruno, you specialize in these oracular pronouncements that mean 
>> absolutely nothing.
>
>
>
> This is just insulting, and add nothing but confusion.
>
> Avoid ad hominem patronizing tone and focus on what you do not understand 
> or disagree with.
>
>
>
> "locality follows from linearity" -- what a load of 
>> total nonsense. 
>>
>
>
> OK, I was quick there, but I provided more details in *many* other posts. 
> Please read most of a thread, not just a a sentence here and there and then 
> adding to the prejudices.
>
> To be slightly less short, and explain, I was talking in the frame of the 
> non collapse formulation of QM, and I was just saying that without any 
> collapse, the linearity of the tensor product with the linearity of the SWE 
> ensure that at any time everything is local, even computable, in the global 
> third person picture.
>
> Basically, "physical non locality" needs to put some amount of 3p sense in 
> the collapse of the wave, where in the MWI (and in arithmetic) the 
> indeterminacies and the non local appearances are purely epistemic (first 
> person or first person plural). 
>
>
>
>
>
>
>> > There are 1p statistical interference, but Bell's inequality violation 
>> > is accounted without FTL, which is not the case with collapse, or 
>> > Bohmian particules. 
>> > I gave the proof with others, and eventually you admitted that there 
>> > was no real action at a distance. But with one world, those are real 
>> > action at a distance. So I think the point has been made. 
>>
>> There is no FTL mechanism in action in one world or many: Bell 
>> non-locality obeys the no-signalling theorem. You have to get over 
>> thinking that non-locality means FTL action. 
>>
>
> Here's an article of interest. FWIW, I don't believe the no-signalling 
> theorem puts this issue
> to rest. AG
>
>
> In all the thread we (me and Bruce) were agreeing with this,   
>

I haven't read every post in this thread, but from Bruce's remark above, he 
apparently believes that you believe in FTL transmission of information, 
and that since the no-signal theorem denies that, your claim (or any claim 
of FTL transmission) is falsified.The article I posted denies that the 
apparent contradiction between relativity and non locality can be resolved 
simply by appealing to the non-signalling theorem, which Bruce seems to 
assert. I can only go by his words. So I don't see that the article I 
posted is irrelevant to the discussion. AG  

>
> The question was specifically about some possible remnant of physical 
> action at a distance in the MWI. We both know that the non signaling does 
> not put light on this. Genuine physical action at a distance obviously 
> exist in the QM-with-collapse, by Bell's inequality violation, but Bell's 
> argument does not show action at a distance( in any unique branch if that 
> exist), in the MWI. 
>
> What we have is the contagion of superposition, and they never go quicker 
> than interaction, that is at sub-speed of light.
>
> And that is why we can define, or represent the "world" by set of 
> space-time events closed for interaction.
>
>
>
>  http://people.uleth.ca/~kent.peacock/FQXi_v2.pdf
>
>
> Interesting (but out of  topic indeed).
>
> Bruno
>
>
>
>> >>> That adds nothing, indeed. That shows only that the paradoxes came 
>> >>> only from the axioms some have added to fit their philosophical 
>> >>> prejudices. 
>> >> 
>> >> So you add axioms to suit your philosophical prejudices just as 
>> >> others do -- how does that make your position any better than that of 
>> >> others? 
>> > 
>> > No. I subtract axioms. 
>> > 
>> > Bohr's axioms: SWE + COLLAPSE + number (add,mult)      (+ 
>> > unintelligible theory of mind) 
>> > 
>> > Everett's axioms SWE + Number (add,mult).       (+ mechanist theory of 
>> > mind) 
>> > 
>> > Your servitor's axioms: Number(add,mult).        (+ mechanist theory 
>> > of mind) 
>> > 
>> > And I don't pretend that is true, only that digital mechanism makes 
>> > this necessary and testable (modulo the usual "malin génies"). 
>>
>> All the above sets of axioms lead to non-local theories. You may claim 
>> just to subtract axioms, but that is as much choosing your axioms as any 
>> other procedure. And you have yet to show that you get the physics of 
>> this world out of your theory --and demonstrate the necessary stability 
>> of the physics. Just wishing evil genies away does not actually banish 
>> them. 
>>
>> Bruce 
>>
>>
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> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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