Re: A Possible Mathematical Structure for Physics

2009-08-17 Thread Flammarion

I've seen John Baez suggest that

On 17 Aug, 15:23, ronaldheld ronaldh...@gmail.com wrote:
 arxiv.org:0908.2063v1
 Any comments?
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-17 Thread Flammarion



On 17 Aug, 20:49, Jesse Mazer laserma...@hotmail.com wrote:
 Peter Jones wrote:

  On 17 Aug, 11:17, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
   On 17 Aug 2009, at 11:11, 1Z wrote:

Without Platonism, there is no UD since it is not observable within
physical space. So the UDA is based on Plat., not the other way
round.

   Are you saying that without platonism, the square root of 2 does not
   exist?

  Yes, the square root of two has no ontological existence.

   Prime number does not exist?

  Yes, prime numbers have no ontological existence

 What do you mean by ontological existence?

Real in the Sense that I am Real.

The modern perspective among analytic philosophers is to tie ontology to the 
notion of objective truth--if we imagine a book containing an exhaustive set 
of *all* objective truths about reality, then the minimal set of entities that 
we would need to refer to in such a book, in such a way that we could not 
remove all reference to them by coming up with a paraphrase of all 
statements involving them, would be the ones that must be part of our ontology.

That acount ties ontology to objective truth AND reality. We anti-
Platonists think
the truths of mathematics are objective but without any necessary
connection to reality.

This idea goes back to Quine, it's discussed 
athttp://philosophy.uwaterloo.ca/MindDict/ontology.htmland there's also a 
discussion in the introduction to the book The Oxford Handbook of 
Metaphysics, which says:
 Quine's criterion of ontological commitment is understood to be something 
 like this: If one affirms a statement using a name or other singular term, or 
 an initial phrase of 'existential quantification', like 'There are some 
 so-and-sos', then one must either (1) admit that one is committed to the 
 existence of things answering to the singular term or satisfying the 
 description, or (2) provide a 'paraphrase' of the statement that eschews 
 singular terms and quantifications over so-and-sos.

We anti-Platonists do the latter.

So interpreted, Quine's criterion can be seen as a logical development of the 
methods of Russell and Moore, who assumed that one must accept the existence 
of entities corresponding to the singular terms used in statements one 
accepts, unless and until one finds systematic methods of paraphrase that 
eliminate these terms.  Most philosophers today who identify themselves as 
metaphysicians are in basic agreement with the Quinean approach to systematic 
metaphysics
 The paraphrase condition means, for example, that instead of adopting a 
 statement like unicorns have one horn as a true statement about reality and 
 thus being forced to accept the existence of unicorns, you could instead 
 paraphrase this in terms of what images and concepts are in people's mind 
 when they use the word unicorn; and if you're an eliminative materialist 
 who wants to avoid accepting mental images and concepts as a basic element of 
 your ontology, it might seem plausible that you could *in principle* 
 paraphrase all statements about human concepts using statements about 
 physical processes in human brains, although we may lack the understanding to 
 do that now.
 As the quote says, most philosophers (analytic philosophers anyway) adopt 
 this point of view when dealing with metaphysical questions. For instance, if 
 you believe there are objective truths about mathematics which cannot be 
 reduced to statements about the physical world using an appropriate 
 paraphrase, then in Quine's scheme you'd have committed yourself to some 
 form of mathematical platonism. Likewise, if you believe there is an 
 objective truth about what it is like for a human to experience the color 
 blue which could not be deduced from an exhaustive set of facts about their 
 physical brain, as suggested by the Mary's room thought-experiment 
 (seehttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mary's_room), then you've committed yourself 
 to an ontology where qualia have some sort of nonmaterial existence (even if 
 they are entirely determined by the physical arrangements of matter and the 
 physical world is 'causally closed', as proposed by David Chalmers).

Yep. I have no problem with any of that
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-18 Thread Flammarion



On 18 Aug, 02:47, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/18 Jesse Mazer wrote:

 AFAICS the assumption of primary matter 'solves' the white rabbit
 problem by making it circular: i.e. assuming that primary matter
 exists entails restricting the theory to just those mathematics and
 parameters capable of predicting what is observed; since white rabbits
 are not in fact observed, it follows that no successful mathematics of
 primary matter has any business predicting them.

 This is not to say that such circularity is necessarily vicious; its
 proponents no doubt see it as virtuously parsimonious.  Nonetheless,
 one of the chief arguments for the pluralistic alternatives is that -
 by not applying a priori mathematical or parametric restrictions -
 they may thereby be less arbitrary.  This of course leaves them with
 the problem of the white rabbits to solve by other means.

 David

Yes. It pretty well comes to a trade-off between cotingency and saving
appearances.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-18 Thread Flammarion



On 18 Aug, 01:53, Jesse Mazer laserma...@hotmail.com wrote:
 Peter Jones wrote:

  On 17 Aug, 14:46, Jesse Mazer laserma...@hotmail.com wrote:
   1Z wrote:
 But those space-time configuration are themselves described by  
 mathematical functions far more complex that the numbers described or 
  
 explain.

   But what is this primary matter? If it is entirely divorced from all 
   the evidence from physics that various abstract mathematical models of 
   particles and fields can be used to make accurate predictions about 
   observed experimental results, then it becomes something utterly 
   mysterious and divorced from any of our empirical experiences whatsoever 
   (since all of our intuitions regarding 'matter' are based solely on our 
   empirical experiences with how it *behaves* in the sensory realm, and the 
   abstract mathematical models give perfectly accurate predictions about 
   this behavior).

  Primary matter is very much related to the fact that some theories of
  physics work and other do not. It won't tell you which ones work, but
  it will tell you why there is a difference. It solves the white rabbit
  problem. We don't see logically consistent but otherwise bizarre
  universes because they are immaterial and non-existent--not matter
  instantiates
  that particualar amtehamtical structure.

 But then it seems like you're really just talking about consciousness and 
 qualia--of all the mathematically possible universes containing possible 
 self-aware observers, only in some (or one) are these possible observers 
 actually real in the sense of having qualia (and there qualia being 
 influenced by other, possibly nonconsious elements of the mathematical 
 universe they are a part of).

No.. I don't need the hypothesis that WR universes are there but
unobserved.

 There's no need to have a middleman called primary matter, such that only 
 some (or one) mathematical possible universes are actually instantianted in 
 primary matter, and only those instantiated in primary matter give rise to 
 qualia.

There is no absolute need, but there are advantages. For instance, the
many-wolder might have to admit
the existence of zombie universes -- universes that containt
*apparent* intelligent lige that is nonetheless unconscious--
in order to account for the non-obseration of WR universes.

 If you *are* going to add unobservable middlemen like this,

I don't concede that PM is unobservable. What exists is material, what
is immaterial does not
exist. There is therefore a large set of facts about matter. Moreover,
the many-worlders extra
universes *have* to be unobservable one way or the other, since they
are not observed!

there's no real logical justification for having only one--you could say only 
some mathematically possible universes are instantiated in primary asfgh, and 
only some of those give rise to qwertyuiop, and only the ones with quertyuiop 
can give rise to zxcvbn, and only ones with zxcvbn can give rise to qualia and 
consciousness.

Single-universe thinking is a different game from everythingism. It is
not about
explaining everything from logical first priciples. It accepts
contingency as the price
paid for parsimony. Pasimony and lack of arbitrariness are *both*
explanatory
desiderata, so there is no black-and-white sense in which
Everythingism wins.

    In that case you might as well call it primary ectoplasm or primary 
 asdfgh.

  You might as well call 2 the successor of 0. All symbols are
  arbitrary.

 My point was just that I think it's *misleading* to use the word matter 
 which already has all sorts of intuitive associations for us, when really 
 you're talking about something utterly mysterious whose properties are 
 completely divorced from our experiences, more like Kant's noumena which 
 were supposed to be things-in-themselves separate from all phenomenal 
 properties (including quantitative ones).

I don't accept that characterisation of PM. (BTW, phenomenal
properties could be accounted for
as non-mathematical attributes of PM)

   And are you making any explicit assumption about the relation between 
   this primary matter and qualia/first-person experience? If not, then I 
   don't see why it wouldn't be logically possible to have a universe with 
   primary matter but no qualia (all living beings would be zombies), or 
   qualia but no primary matter (and if you admit this possibility, then why 
   shouldn't we believe this is exactly the type of universe we live in?)

  The second possibility is ruled out because it predicts White Rabbits.

 I don't agree, there's no reason you couldn't postulate a measure

Yes there is: you have to justify from first principles and not just
postulate it.
The problem is that if all possible maths exists, all possible
measures exist...
you can't pick out one as being, for some contingent reason the
measure

on the set of mathematical possibilities which determined the likelihood they 
would actually be 

Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-18 Thread Flammarion



On 18 Aug, 00:41, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/17 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  Yep. I have no problem with any of that

 Really?  Let's see then.

  The paraphrase condition means, for example, that instead of adopting a 
  statement like unicorns have one horn as a true statement about reality 
  and thus being forced to accept the existence of unicorns, you could 
  instead paraphrase this in terms of what images and concepts are in 
  people's mind when they use the word unicorn; and if you're an 
  eliminative materialist who wants to avoid accepting mental images and 
  concepts as a basic element of your ontology, it might seem plausible that 
  you could *in principle* paraphrase all statements about human concepts 
  using statements about physical processes in human brains, although we may 
  lack the understanding to do that now.

 I presume that one could substitute 'computation' for 'unicorn' in the
 above passage?  If so, the human concept that it is 'computation' that
 gives rise to consciousness could be paraphrased using statements
 about physical processes in human brains.  So what may we now suppose
 gives such processes this particular power?  Presumably not their
 'computational' nature - because now nous n'avons pas besoin de cette
 hypothèse-là (which I'm sure you will recall was precisely the point
 I originally made).  

That's completely back to front. Standard computaitonalism
regards computation as a physical process taking place
in brains and computer hardware. It doesn't exist
at the fundamental level like quarks, and it isn't non-existent
like unicorns. It is a higher-level existent, like horses.

Standard computationalism is *not* Bruno's claims about
immaterial self-standing  computations dreaming they are butterflies
or
whatever. That magnificent edifice is very much of his own
making. He may call it comp but don't be fooled.

It seems to me that what one can recover from
 this is simply the hypothesis that certain brain processes give rise
 to consciousness in virtue of their being precisely the processes that
 they are - no more, no less.

 Am I still missing something?

It's prima facie possible for physicalism to be true
and computationalism false. That is to say that
the class of consciousness-causing processes might
not coincide with any proper subset of the class
of computaitonal processes.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-18 Thread Flammarion



On 18 Aug, 01:43, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/17 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  I am trying to persuade Bruno that his argument has an implict
  assumption of Platonism that should be made explicit. An  assumption
  of Platonism as a non-observable background might be
  justifiiable in the way you suggest, but it does need
  to be made explicit.

 Yes, this is why I felt it might help the discussion to make the
 possibility of such an assumption explicit in this way.

  Bruno's theory may well be falsifiable. But then it is hardly
  a disproof of materialism as it stands.

 Agreed - not as a knockdown blow - although as you know his argument
 is that materialism is incompatible with the computational theory of
 mind; and of course I've also been arguing for this, although my
 alternative (i.e. a theory, rather than an intuition) wouldn't
 necessarily be the same as his.

  I think the core of the problem is a tendency to mentally conjure
  platonia as a pure figment;

  I am not sure what you mean by that. Anti-Platonic philsoophies
  of maths, such as formalism, are considered positons supported by
  arguments, not vague intuitions.

 Yes, I don't dispute that.  But aside from this, perhaps one could say
 that we tend to assume that ideas about 'platonias' have sense but no
 reference.  

I don't see why

However, some physicists - Julian Barbour for one - use
 the term in a way that clearly has reference, as I think does Bruno.

Any Platonists thinks there is a real immaterial realm, that is the
whole point

 One should perhaps recall that the appeal to number as a causal
 principle (to use the logic of 'paraphrase') can't be met by any
 merely human concept of number.  IOW for reality to emerge from
 number, whatever the putative referents of human number terminology
 may be, they must at some level be uniquely cashable in terms of
 RITSIAR.

I would have hoped that was obvious.

  this will not do; nor is it presumably
  what Plato had in mind.  Rather, platonia might be reconceived in
  terms of the preconditions of the observable and real; its theoretical
  entities must - ultimately - be cashable for what is RITSIAR, both
  'materially' and 'mentally'.  On this basis, some such intuition of an
  'immaterial'  (pre-material?) - but inescapably real - precursory
  state could be seen as theoretically inevitable, whether one
  subsequently adopts a materialist or a comp interpretative stance.

  I don;t see why it is necessay at all, let alone why
  it was inevitable. You were earlier comparing it
  to a hypothetical background ontology. How did
  it jump form (falsifiable) hypotheiss to necessary
  and inevitable truth?

 It didn't.  I was just suggesting that embracing some more 'agnostic'

?!?!?!

 background schema of this kind might actually be helpful in
 appreciating the scope and limits of explanation.  For example, just
 how far down the explanatory hierarchy do we have to go before it
 starts making less and less sense to insist on characterising the
 explanatory entities as 'material'?  

It hasn't happened yet.

Are superstrings material?  Is
 quantum foam material?  Are
 whatever-are-conceived-as-the-pre-conditions for their appearance in
 the scheme of things material?  What is surely at issue is not their
 'essential' materiality but their properties as appealed to by theory
 (i.e. the ones to which we would resort by paraphrase).

Any physcial theory is distinguished from an
Everythingis theory by maintaining the contingent existence of only
some
possible mathematical structures. That is a general statement that
is not affected by juggling one theory for another. I have further
defined PM in *terms* of such contingency.

 Perhaps our
 ultimate explanatory entities need be conceived as no more 'material'
 than necessary for us to depend on them as plausible pre-cursors of
 the more obviously material; but of course, no less so either.

 While I've got you here, as it were - I don't see why this wouldn't
 apply equally to the mental: IOW our explanatory entities need be
 conceived as no more 'mental' than necessary for us to depend on them
 as plausible precursors of the more obviously mental; but no less so
 either.

 David


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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-18 Thread Flammarion



On 18 Aug, 09:12, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 17 Aug 2009, at 19:28, Flammarion wrote:



  On 17 Aug, 11:17, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 17 Aug 2009, at 11:11, 1Z wrote:

  Without Platonism, there is no UD since it is not observable within
  physical space. So the UDA is based on Plat., not the other way
  round.

  Are you saying that without platonism, the square root of 2 does not
  exist?

  Yes, the square root of two has no ontological existence.

 All what matters with comp is that things like the square root of 2  
 has a notion of existence independent of me.

that's what I meant.

  Prime number does not exist?

  Yes, prime numbers have no ontological existence

 I guess you make a material ontological commitment. One of my goal  
 is to explain, notably with the comp hyp, that a term like matter has  
 no referent.

One of my goals is to explain that you cannot convince
me tha matter doesn't exist without first convincing
me that numbers do. You may be able to eliminate
matter in favour of numbers, but that doesn;'t stop
me douing the converse.

This would explain why physicist never use such  
 ontological commitment explicitly.

Physicists write reams about matter.

 To say that matter exists simply is a non rational act of the type  
 don't ask. UDA makes just this precise by reudcing the mind body  
 problem to a body problem.

The UDA doesn't even start without Platonism


  That mathematical existence is a
  meaningless notion?

  Sense but no refence. Mathematical statements have
  truth values but do not refere to anything outside the
  formal system.

 Then they have no truth value.

That statement requires some justification

 What you say is formalism, and this has  
 been explicitly refuted by mathematical logicians.

False. From previous conversations, you conflate fomalism
with Hilbert's programme. I am not referring to the claim
that there is a mechanical proof-porcedure for any
theorem, I am referring to the claim that mathematics
is a non-referential formal game. Note that Platonism
vs. Formalism is an open quesiton in philosophy.

 We know, mainly by the work of Gödel that the truth about numbers  
 extends what can be justified in ANY effective formal systems (and non  
 effective one are not really formal).

Irrelevant. Platonism
vs. Formalism is a debate about *existence* not about truth.

 But I know that there are still some formalists in the neighborhood,  
 and that is why I make explicit the assumption of arithmetical  
 realism. It is the assumption that the structure (N, +, x) is well  
 defined, despite we can't define it effectively.



  Mathematics would be a physical illusion?

  A referentless formal game, distinguished from fiction
  only by its rigour and generality

 You evacuate the whole approach of semantics by Tarski and Quine.

Maybe. Evidently I prefer Frege

 I  
 will not insist on this because I will explain with some detail why  
 Church thesis necessitate arithmetical realism, and why this leads  
 directly to the incompleteness and the discovery that arithmetical  
 truth cannot be captured by any effective formal system. The formalist  
 position in math is no more tenable.



  But physics use mathematics, would that not make physics illusory or
  circular?

  No, because it uses mathematics empirically. The same
  language that can be used to write fiction can be used to
  write history. The difference is in how it used. not in the langauge
  itself

 I don't see any difference in the use of analytical tools in physics  
 and in number theory.

I've done both and I do.

The distribution of the prime numbers is  
 objective, and this is the only type of independent objectivity needed  
 in the reasoning. Nothing more.

Truths about prime numbers are objective truths,. That
says nothing about existence.

  It's a perfectly consistent assumption. THere is no
  disproof of materialism that doesn't beg the quesiton by
  assuming immaterialism

  Well, I do believe in the natural numbers, and I do believe in their
  immateriality (the number seven is not made of quantum field, or
  waves, or particle).

  Then you are a Platonist, and you argument is based
  on Platonism.

 I believe that the truth of arithmetical statement having the shape  
 ExP(x) is independent of me, and you and the physical universe (if  
 that exists).

To get a claim of existence out of that claim of truth, you have
to take the exists to have a single uniform meaning in all
contexts,. This, we formalists dispute.

 You can call that Platonism, if you want, but this is not obviously  
 anti-physicalist.

Show me where these numbers are phsycially, then

Non-physicalism is the conclusion of a reasoning  
 (UDA).

Unfortunately, it is also the assumption

 Given that Plato's conception of reality is closer to the conclusion,  
 I prefer to use the expression Arithmetical realism for this (banal)  
 assumption, and Platonism or non

Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-18 Thread Flammarion



On 18 Aug, 10:01, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 17 Aug 2009, at 22:48, Flammarion wrote:



  What do you mean by ontological existence?

  Real in the Sense that I am Real.

 What does that mean?

 Do you mean real in the sense that 1-I is real?  or
 do you mean real in the sense that 3-I is real?

 The 1-I reality (my consciousness) is undoubtable, and incommunicable
 in any 3-ways.

 The 3-I reality (my body, identity card, ...) is doubtable (I could be
 dreaming) and communicable in 3-ways, yet always with interrogation
 mark.

 This makes a big difference.

It's an epistemological difference.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-18 Thread Flammarion



On 18 Aug, 10:51, Jesse Mazer laserma...@hotmail.com wrote:
  Date: Tue, 18 Aug 2009 01:55:35 -0700
  Subject: Re: Emulation and Stuff
  From: peterdjo...@yahoo.com
  To: everything-list@googlegroups.com

  However, some physicists - Julian Barbour for one - use
   the term in a way that clearly has reference, as I think does Bruno.

  Any Platonists thinks there is a real immaterial realm, that is the
  whole point

 What does real mean?

ITSIAR

Once again it seems to be a synonym for existence, but you aren't defining 
what notion of existence you're talking about, you speak as though it has a 
single transparent meaning which coincides with your own notion of physical 
existence.

There is a basic meaning to existence, the Johnsonion one.

On the contrary, I think most modern analytic philosophers would interpret 
mathematical Platonism to mean *only* that mathematical structures exist in 
the Quinean sense, i.e. that there are truths about them that cannot be 
paraphrased into truths about the physical world (whatever that is). I don't 
think any additional notion of existence is normally implied by the term 
mathematical Platonism (and many philosophers might not even acknowledge 
that there are any well-defined notions of of 'existence' besides the Quinean 
one)

It is absolutely clear from the above that if they are a) existent and
b) not physcially accountable then they
are c) immaterically existent.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-18 Thread Flammarion



On 16 Aug, 16:34, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 14 Aug 2009, at 14:34, 1Z wrote:



  On 14 Aug, 09:48, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  You are dismissing the first person indeterminacy. A stuffy TM can
  run
  a computation. But if a consciousness is attached to that
  computation,
  it is automatically attached to an infinity of immaterial and
  relative
  computations as well,

  There's your Platonism.

 Not mine. The one which follows from the comp assumption, if UDA is
 valid.

  If nothing immaterial exists (NB nothing,
  I don't make exceptions for just a few pixies or juse a few numbers)
  there is nothiign for a cosnc. to attach itself to except a propbably
  small, probabuily singular set of stuiffy brains and computers.

 I can understand how easy for a materialist it is, to conceive at
 first sight, that numbers and mathematical objects are convenient
 fiction realized as space-time material configuration, perhaps of
 brains.
 But those space-time configuration are themselves described by
 mathematical functions far more complex that the numbers described or
 explain. This leads to major difficulties,

i dont; see why. THe neural underpinnings of the concept horse
are probably more complex than the  concept horse. If you folow that
reasonng through consistently, Plato's heaven is going to be densely
populated
and the brain will have no woro to do at all

 even before approaching the
 consciousness problem.

mathematical stucture+matter gives you more to
tackle the consciousness problem with than mathematical structure
alone

 This shows that a purely physicalist explanation of numbers could lead
 to difficulties. But the same for a description of any piece of
 material things, by just that token.

By what token? You think there is some complex undepiining to
quarks?

 So, I am not sure that physicist can be said to have solved the
 matter problem either, and some physicists are already open,
 independently of comp, to the idea that physical objects are relative
 mathematical (immaterial) objects. Which of course are no material.
 Wheeler, Tegmark, for example.
 But then with comp, you are yourself an immaterial object, of the kind
 person, like the lobian machine. You own a body, or you borrow it to
 your neighborhood, and you as an immaterial pattern can become
 stable only by being multiplied in infinities of coherent similar
 histories, which eventually the physicists begin to talk about
 (multiverse).

 I tend to believe in many immaterial things. Some are absolutely real
 (I think) like the natural numbers.
 Some may be seen as absolutely real, or just as useful fiction: it
 changes nothing.

I can't take a ride on pagasus. and I can;t be computed
by a convenient fiction

 This is the case for the negative number, the
 rational, a large part of the algebraic and topological, and analytical.
 Some are both absolutely real, and physically real, they live in
 platonia, and then can come back on earth: they have a relatively
 concrete existence. For example, the games of chess, the computers,
 the animals, and the persons. But the concreteness is relative, the
 'I' coupled with the chessboard is an abstract couple following
 normality conditions (that QM provides, but comp not yet).
 Some could have an even more trivial sense of absolute existence, and
 a case could be made they don't exist, even in Platonia, like the
 unicorns, perhaps, and the squared circles (hopefully).

 Each branch of math has its own notion of existence, and with comp, we
 have a lot  choice, for the ontic part, but usually I take
 arithmetical existence, if only because this is taught in school, and
 its enough to justified the existence of the universal numbers, and
 either they dreams (if yes doctor) or at least their discourse on
 their dreams (if you say no the doctor and decide to qualify those
 machines are inexistent zombies).

Platonism is not taught in schools. You are conflatin
existence with truth

 There is a sense to say those universal machines do not exist, but it
 happens that they don't have the cognitive abilities to know that, and
 for them, in-existence does not make sense.

 And for a mathematicans, they exists in a very strong sense, which is
 that, by accepting Church Thesis, they can prove the existence of
 universal digital (mathematical) machine from 0, succession, addition
 and multiplication.
 Both amoebas colony (human cells), and engineers are implementing some
 of them everyday in our neighborhood, as we can guess.

 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-18 Thread Flammarion



On 18 Aug, 11:25, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 18 Aug 2009, at 10:55, Flammarion wrote:



  Any physcial theory is distinguished from an
  Everythingis theory by maintaining the contingent existence of only
  some
  possible mathematical structures. That is a general statement that
  is not affected by juggling one theory for another. I have further
  defined PM in *terms* of such contingency.

 That is actually very nice, because it follows the Plato-Aristotle-
 Plotinus definition of matter which I follow in AUDA.
 And this is enough for showing we don't have to reify matter (nor  
 numbers).

If you are not reifying anything. then there is nothing, hen there is
no UD.

   I don't see, indeed, how you can both define matter from contingent  
 structures and still pretend that matter is primitive.

I am saying that material existence *is* contingent
existence. It is not a structure of anything.

 Somehow you talk like you would be able to be *conscious* of the  
 existence of primitive matter.

Well, at least I don't talk about immaterial machines dreaming each
other.

 All the Peter Jones which are generated by the UD, in the Tarski or  
 Fregean sense, (I don't care), will pretend that primitive matter does  
 not exist, and if your argument goes through, for rational reason and  
 logic (and not by mystical apprehension), those immaterial Peter Jones  
 will prove *correctly* that they are material, and this is a  
 contradiction.

It's not  a contradiction of materialism. If there are no immaterial
PJ's, nothing is believed by them at all.

 So to save a role to matter, you will have to make your consciousness  
 of primitive matter relying on some non computational feature.

No. I just have to deny immaterial existence. You keep confusing the
idea
that theoretical entities could hypothetcially have certain beliefs
with the
actual existence of those entities and beliefs.

 Note that if you accept standard comp, you have to accept that  
 Peter Jones is generated by the UD makes sense, even if you cease to  
 give referents to such Peter Jones.

False. Standard comp says nothing about Platonism or  AR.
I can give a Johnsonian refutation of the UD. I can't see it,
no-one can see it, so it ain't there.

Fregean sense is enough to see  
 that those Peter Jones would correctly (if you are correct) prove that  
 they are material, when we know (reasoning outside the UD) than they  
 are not.

So? That doesn't man I am wrong, because it doesn't mean I am in
the UD. The fact that we can see that a BIV has false beliefs
 doesn't make us wrong
about anything.

 Your argument should be non UD accessible, and thus non Turing emulable.

No, it just has to be right. The fact that a simulated me
*would8 be wrong doesn't mean the real me *is* wrong.

 If you feel being primitively material, just say no to the doctor.

Why can't I just get a guarantee that he will re-incarnate me
materially?
Even if matter doesn't exist, I won't lose out.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-18 Thread Flammarion



On 18 Aug, 15:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 18 Aug 2009, at 12:14, Flammarion wrote:



  Each branch of math has its own notion of existence, and with comp,  
  we
  have a lot  choice, for the ontic part, but usually I take
  arithmetical existence, if only because this is taught in school, and
  its enough to justified the existence of the universal numbers, and
  either they dreams (if yes doctor) or at least their discourse on
  their dreams (if you say no the doctor and decide to qualify those
  machines are inexistent zombies).

  Platonism is not taught in schools. You are conflatin
  existence with truth

 Platonism is not taught in schools, I agree. But I have never said that.
 I am not conflating existence with truth, I am conflating mathematical  
 existence with truth of existential arithmetical statements.

You have to be doing more than that, because
you cannot agree with me that mathematical existence
is no existence at all.

  mathematical stucture+matter gives you more to
  tackle the consciousness problem with than mathematical structure
  alone

 The mind-body problem comes from the fact that we have not yet find  
 how to attach consciousness to matter.

No, it comes from no being able to attach *phenomenal*
consciousness to mathematical structures. There is no problem
attaching *cognition* to matter at all. If the matter of your brain
is disrupted, so are your though processes.

At least with comp, after UDA,  
 we know why.



  No. it is equivalent to the conjunction of that stament with
  and the mathematicians Ex is a claim of ontological existence.

 You are the one making that addition. So, again, show where in the  
 reasoning I would use that addition.


Where you want me to be running on a UD. I cannot be running on a
merely conceptual UD any more than I can be a character in fiction.

  If you really believe that the number 7 has no existence at all, then
  the UDA reasoning does not go through,

  at last!

 Read or reread the SANE paper, I explicitly assume Arithmetical  
 Realism.

Then you are explicitly *not* assuming standard computaitonalism

This is hardly new. I really don't follow you.
 UDA is an argument showing that comp (yes doctor + CT) = non  
 physicalism.  (CT = Church thesis)

The sane paper says

Classical Digital mechanism, or Classical Computationalism,
or just comp, is the conjunction of the following three sub-
hypotheses: 

You mentioned two. The third is AR/Platonism

 A weaker version of CT is provably equivalent with Ex(x = universal  
 number). It makes no sense without AR.

All mathematics makes sense without Platonism. You are
conflating truth and existence again.  Ex(x = universal   number)
can be true without x being RITSIAR

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-19 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 01:51, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 David Nyman wrote:
  On 19 Aug, 00:20, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  Note that I have never said that matter does not exist. I have no  
  doubt it exists. I am just saying that matter cannot be primitive,  
  assuming comp. Matter is more or less the border of the ignorance of  
  universal machines (to be short). There is a fundamental physics which  
  capture the invariant for all possible universal machine observation,  
  and the rest is geography-history. Assuming comp the consistent-
  contingent obeys laws.

  AFAICS the essence of Bruno's dispute with Peter consists in:

  1)  ***If you accept the computational theory of mind (CTM)*** then
  matter can no longer be primitive to your explanations of appearances
  of any kind, mental or physical.

  2) ***If you assert that matter is primitive to your explanation of
  appearances of any kind, mental or physical (PM)*** it is illegitimate
  to appeal to CTM.

  Bruno's position is that only one of the above can be true (i.e. CTM
  and PM are incompatible) as shown by UDA-8 (MGA/Olympia).   I've also
  argued this, in a somewhat different form.  Peter's position I think
  is that 1) and 2) are both false (or in any case that CTM and PM are
  compatible).  Hence the validity of UDA-8 - in its strongest form -
  seems central to the current dispute, since it is essentially this
  argument that motivates the appeal to arithmetical realism, the topic
  currently generating so much heat.  UDA-8 sets out to be provable or
  disprovable on purely logical grounds.  I for one am unclear on what
  basis it could be attacked as invalid.  Can anyone show strong grounds
  for this?

  David

 I think you are right that the MGA is at the crux.  But I don't know whether 
 to regard it
 as proving that computation need not be physically instantiated or as a 
 reductio against
 the yes doctor hypothesis.  Saying yes to the doctor seems very 
 straightforward when you
 just think about the doctor replacing physical elements of your brain with 
 functionally
 similar elements made of silicon or straw or whatever.  But then I reflect 
 that I, with my
 new head full of straw, must still interact with the world.  So I have not 
 been reduced to
 computation unless the part of the world I interact with is also replaced by 
 computational
 elements

If you were a programme interacting with the world before,
you still will be after a function-preserving replacement is made.


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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-19 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 08:49, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 19 Aug 2009, at 02:31, Brent Meeker wrote:





  Bruno Marchal wrote:

  This is not the point. The point is that if you develop a correct
  argumentation that you are material, and that what we see around us
  is material, then the arithmetical P. Jone(s) will also find a  
  correct
  argumentation that *they* are material, and that what they see is
  material. The problem is that if you are correct in our physical
  reality their reasoning will be correct too, and false of course.  
  But
  then your reasoning has to be false too.
  The only way to prevent this consists in saying that you are not
  Turing-emulable,

  Why can't I just say I'm not Turing emulated?  It seems that your  
  argument uses MGA to
  conclude that no physical instantaion is needed so Turing-
  emulable=Turing-emulated.  It
  seems that all you can conclude is one cannot *know* that they have  
  a correct argument
  showing they are material.  But this is already well known from  
  brain in a vat thought
  experiments.

 OK. But this seems to me enough to render invalid any reasoning  
 leading to our primitive materiality.
 If a reasoning is valid, it has to be valid independently of being  
 published or not, written with ink or carbon, being in or outside the  
 UD*. I did not use MGA here.

That is false. You are tacitly assuming that PM has to be argued
with the full force of necessity -- although your own argument does
not have that force. In fact, PM only has to be shown to be more
plausible than the alternatives. It is not necessarily true because of
sceptical hypotheses like the BIV and the UD, but since neither of
them has much prima-facie plausibility, the plausibility og PM
is not impacted much

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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-19 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 01:29, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

 Bruno's position is that only one of the above can be true (i.e. CTM
 and PM are incompatible) as shown by UDA-8 (MGA/Olympia).   I've also
 argued this, in a somewhat different form.  Peter's position I think
 is that 1) and 2) are both false (or in any case that CTM and PM are
 compatible).  Hence the validity of UDA-8 - in its strongest form -
 seems central to the current dispute, since it is essentially this
 argument that motivates the appeal to arithmetical realism, the topic
 currently generating so much heat.  UDA-8 sets out to be provable or
 disprovable on purely logical grounds.  


I for one am unclear on what
 basis it could be attacked as invalid.  Can anyone show strong grounds
 for this?

Of course, no argument can validly come to a  metaphysical conclusion--
in this
case, that matter does not exist --without making a single
metaphysical assumption.
The argument is therefore invalid, or not purely logical
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-19 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 00:20, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 18 Aug 2009, at 22:43, Flammarion wrote:





  On 18 Aug, 11:25, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 18 Aug 2009, at 10:55, Flammarion wrote:

  Any physcial theory is distinguished from an
  Everythingis theory by maintaining the contingent existence of only
  some
  possible mathematical structures. That is a general statement that
  is not affected by juggling one theory for another. I have further
  defined PM in *terms* of such contingency.

  That is actually very nice, because it follows the Plato-Aristotle-
  Plotinus definition of matter which I follow in AUDA.
  And this is enough for showing we don't have to reify matter (nor
  numbers).

  If you are not reifying anything. then there is nothing, hen there is
  no UD.

 I think you have a magical conception of reality.
 I don't need to reify number to believe in them.
 I just need to play with them.

I think *you* believe in magic. You believe that
if you write down hypothetical truths about what
an immaterial machine would believe, you can conclude
that everything has been conjured up by an immaterial machine.

It's like saying you can go from making a theoretical study of the
aerodynamics of Pegasus to taking a ride on Pegasus's back.

    I don't see, indeed, how you can both define matter from contingent
  structures and still pretend that matter is primitive.

  I am saying that material existence *is* contingent
  existence. It is not a structure of anything.

 Plotinus says that too! Me too.
 With church thesis this is can be made more precise in term of not-
 computable or not-provable, or some relativizations.

You're still not getting it. PM isn't a non-computable number.
It isn't mathematical at all. You really do think in a box..

  Somehow you talk like you would be able to be *conscious* of the
  existence of primitive matter.

  Well, at least I don't talk about immaterial machines dreaming each
  other.

 In arithmetic, that happens all the time. More below.



In arithemetic. people write down problems on blackboards and solve
them.

  All the Peter Jones which are generated by the UD, in the Tarski or
  Fregean sense, (I don't care), will pretend that primitive matter  
  does
  not exist, and if your argument goes through, for rational reason and
  logic (and not by mystical apprehension), those immaterial Peter  
  Jones
  will prove *correctly* that they are material, and this is a
  contradiction.

  It's not  a contradiction of materialism. If there are no immaterial
  PJ's, nothing is believed by them at all.

 Once you say yes to the doctor, there are immaterial Peter Jones. All  
 your doppelganger emulating you, and being emulated at your level of  
 substitution and below relatively occuring in the proof of the Sigma_1  
 sentences of Robinson Arithmetic. (The arithmetical version of the UD).

There is no immaterial existence at all, and  my agreeign to have
my brain physcially replicated doesn't prove there is.

  So to save a role to matter, you will have to make your  
  consciousness
  of primitive matter relying on some non computational feature.

  No. I just have to deny immaterial existence.

 You have to deny the theorem of elementary arithmetic, which are used  
 by physicists (mostly through complex or trigonometric functions,  
 which reintroduce the natural numbers in the continuum).

No. I don't have to deny their truth. I just have to deny that
mathematical
existence is ontological existence. As I have been

  You keep confusing the
  idea
  that theoretical entities could hypothetcially have certain beliefs
  with the
  actual existence of those entities and beliefs.

 You underestimate the dumbness of the DU, or sigma_1 arithmetic. It  
 contains the emulation of all the quantum states of the milky way,  
 with correct approximation of its neighborhood.

Since it does not exist, it does not contain anything.

It is hard to  
 recognize Peter Jones or Bruno Marchal from the huge relation and huge  
 numbers involved, in some emulations, but it is easy to prove there  
 exists, from the information the doctor got when scanning your brain.  

Same mistake
All you can prove is that *if* the UD existed *then* it would
contain such-and-such. But it doesn't actually exist.

 In computations enough similar than our own most probable current one,  
 it is a theorem that those entities have such or such beliefs, and  
 behave in such and such ways, developing such and such discourses.



  Note that if you accept standard comp, you have to accept that
  Peter Jones is generated by the UD makes sense, even if you cease  
  to
  give referents to such Peter Jones.

  False. Standard comp says nothing about Platonism or  AR.
  I can give a Johnsonian refutation of the UD. I can't see it,
  no-one can see it, so it ain't there.

 Standard comp says nothing about Plato's Platonism, but once you take  
 the digitalness seriously enough

Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-19 Thread Flammarion



On 18 Aug, 22:46, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/18 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:



   The paraphrase condition means, for example, that instead of adopting 
   a statement like unicorns have one horn as a true statement about 
   reality and thus being forced to accept the existence of unicorns, you 
   could instead paraphrase this in terms of what images and concepts are 
   in people's mind when they use the word unicorn; and if you're an 
   eliminative materialist who wants to avoid accepting mental images and 
   concepts as a basic element of your ontology, it might seem plausible 
   that you could *in principle* paraphrase all statements about human 
   concepts using statements about physical processes in human brains, 
   although we may lack the understanding to do that now.

  I presume that one could substitute 'computation' for 'unicorn' in the
  above passage?  If so, the human concept that it is 'computation' that
  gives rise to consciousness could be paraphrased using statements
  about physical processes in human brains.  So what may we now suppose
  gives such processes this particular power?  Presumably not their
  'computational' nature - because now nous n'avons pas besoin de cette
  hypothèse-là (which I'm sure you will recall was precisely the point
  I originally made).

  That's completely back to front. Standard computaitonalism
  regards computation as a physical process taking place
  in brains and computer hardware. It doesn't exist
  at the fundamental level like quarks, and it isn't non-existent
  like unicorns. It is a higher-level existent, like horses.

 I completely agree that **assuming primary matter** computation is a
 physical process taking place in brains and computer hardware.  The
 paraphrase argument - the one you said you agreed with - asserts that
 *any* human concept is *eliminable*

No, reducible, not eliminable. That is an important distinction.

 (my original point) after such
 reduction to primary physical processes.  So why should 'computation'
 escape this fate?  How would you respond if I said the brain is
 conscious because it is 'alive'?  Would 'life' elude the paraphrased
 reduction to physical process?

I don't see your point. Either claim may  or may not be true
and may or may not be paraphraseable.

 BTW, let's be clear: I'm not saying that physicalism is false
 (although IMO it is at least incomplete).  I'm merely pointing out one
 of its consequences.

Which is what?

  It's prima facie possible for physicalism to be true
  and computationalism false. That is to say that
  the class of consciousness-causing processes might
  not coincide with any proper subset of the class
  of computaitonal processes.

 Yes, of course, this is precisely my point, for heaven's sake.  Here's
 the proposal, in your own words: assuming physicalism the class of
 consciousness-causing processes might not coincide with any proper
 subset of the class of computational processes.  Physicalist theory
 of mind urgently required.  QED

I am arguing with Bruno about whether the eliminaiton of matter
makes things easier for the MBP. I think it just give you less to work
with.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-19 Thread Flammarion



On 18 Aug, 22:46, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/18 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

 Yes, of course, this is precisely my point, for heaven's sake.  Here's
 the proposal, in your own words: assuming physicalism the class of
 consciousness-causing processes might not coincide with any proper
 subset of the class of computational processes.  Physicalist theory
 of mind urgently required.  QED

Why does it have to be spelt out? No-one in this discussion has
spelt out a CMT, it is taken off the shelf.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-19 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 10:28, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/19 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  There is no immaterial existence at all, and  my agreeign to have
  my brain physcially replicated doesn't prove there is.

 And you saying so doesn't prove there isn't.



   So to save a role to matter, you will have to make your
   consciousness
   of primitive matter relying on some non computational feature.

   No. I just have to deny immaterial existence.

  You have to deny the theorem of elementary arithmetic, which are used
  by physicists (mostly through complex or trigonometric functions,
  which reintroduce the natural numbers in the continuum).

  No. I don't have to deny their truth. I just have to deny that
  mathematical
  existence is ontological existence. As I have been

 Then you're missusing 'existence'. Because using your language
 existence = no existence at all ! for mathemetical existence... Why
 bother using the word existence when you don't even mean it.

People do. People agree that Sherlock Holmes lived
at 221b Baker Street even though he lived at all.
If you want to start a project to eliminate metaphorical
and other non-literla uses from langauge, you have
a long way to go.

   You keep confusing the
   idea
   that theoretical entities could hypothetcially have certain beliefs
   with the
   actual existence of those entities and beliefs.

  You underestimate the dumbness of the DU, or sigma_1 arithmetic. It
  contains the emulation of all the quantum states of the milky way,
  with correct approximation of its neighborhood.

  Since it does not exist, it does not contain anything.

 You say so, but you could repeat it ad infinitum, it won't render it truer.

*If* it does not exist, it does not contain anything.

Now show that it exists.

 It is hard to
  recognize Peter Jones or Bruno Marchal from the huge relation and huge
  numbers involved, in some emulations, but it is easy to prove there
  exists, from the information the doctor got when scanning your brain.

  Same mistake
  All you can prove is that *if* the UD existed *then* it would
  contain such-and-such. But it doesn't actually exist.

  In computations enough similar than our own most probable current one,
  it is a theorem that those entities have such or such beliefs, and
  behave in such and such ways, developing such and such discourses.

   Note that if you accept standard comp, you have to accept that
   Peter Jones is generated by the UD makes sense, even if you cease
   to
   give referents to such Peter Jones.

   False. Standard comp says nothing about Platonism or  AR.
   I can give a Johnsonian refutation of the UD. I can't see it,
   no-one can see it, so it ain't there.

  Standard comp says nothing about Plato's Platonism, but once you take
  the digitalness seriously enough, and CT, it is just standard computer
  science.

  That is never going to get you further than mathematical existence.
  You still need the futher step of showing mathematical existence is
  ontological RITISAR existence.

 So you would accept to be turned into a program as long as you're
 running on a physical implementation... ok it's fair enough. My
 question is *in that precise case*... What are you ? the program
 written in whatever language it was written ? the functionnaly
 equivalent program written in brainfuck ? the same written in the
 machine language of the physical machine you're running on ? the
 bytecode that would be JIT in a VM ? the transistor of the physical
 machine ?

 What IS RITSIAR when you'll be digitalized ?

Whatever combination of hardware and software I am in
fact running on. Juggling combinations of h/w and s/w is not
going to make me immaterial.

 If you're running, and I suspend the program ? Do *you* still exists ?

no

 If I restart it ? Do you still exists ?

yes

 If I never restart it do you
 still exists ?

no

If I destroy every copy of the program that is you do
 you still exists ?

no


  See conscience  mécanisme appendices for snapshot of a running
  mathematical DU. It exists mathematically. But it can be implemented
  materially , i.e. relatively to our most probable computations too.

  So? It hasn't been.

   Fregean sense is enough to see
   that those Peter Jones would correctly (if you are correct) prove
   that
   they are material, when we know (reasoning outside the UD) than they
   are not.

   So? That doesn't man I am wrong, because it doesn't mean I am in
   the UD. The fact that we can see that a BIV has false beliefs
   doesn't make us wrong
   about anything.

  This is not the point. The point is that if you develop a correct
  argumentation that you are material, and that what we see around us
  is material, then the arithmetical P. Jone(s) will also find a correct
  argumentation that *they* are material, and that what they see is
  material.

  So? If you develop a correct argument that you are running on a
  computer
  when actually you are a BIV

Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-19 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 13:03, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 009/8/19 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  I completely agree that **assuming primary matter** computation is a
  physical process taking place in brains and computer hardware.  The
  paraphrase argument - the one you said you agreed with - asserts that
  *any* human concept is *eliminable*

  No, reducible, not eliminable. That is an important distinction.

 Not in this instance.  The whole thrust of the paraphrase argument is
 precisely to show - in principle at least - that the reduced concept
 can be *eliminated* from the explanation.  You can do this with
 'life', so you should be prepared to do it with 'computation'.

Showing that a word can be removed from a verbal formulation
by substitution with s synonym is not *ontological* elimination.
Substituting H2O for water does not show that water is non-existent,
just that
is is non-fundamental.

  (my original point) after such
  reduction to primary physical processes.  So why should 'computation'
  escape this fate?  How would you respond if I said the brain is
  conscious because it is 'alive'?  Would 'life' elude the paraphrased
  reduction to physical process?

  I don't see your point. Either claim may  or may not be true
  and may or may not be paraphraseable.

 My point is that claiming - *a priori* - that 'life' caused
 consciousness would shed as little light as saying that computation
 did so.

I don't think anyone is doing that. For one thing, there is quite
a body of research on computationalism. For another, it is being
discussed as a hypothesis, which is different from assuming its
truth.

  In either case, a successful paraphrase must be capable of
 pointing out precisely *which* specific physical entities - in
 precisely *what* relation - to precisely *which* other specific
 physical entities - are deemed responsible for the paraphrased concept
 in any specific case.  I freely concede that - *if* it turned out a
 posteriori that a reduced physical theory capable of explicitly
 attaching specific mental descriptions to specific physical processes
 could be shown, in all cases FAPP, to be equivalent to some explicitly
 specifiable program interpreted purely in terms of functional
 relations of its physical instantiation - I would indeed be impressed.
  But this would be a world away from a brute a priori assumption.
 IOW, the justification for any paraphrased concept is posterior, not
 prior.

Err...yeah. I'm not particularly commited to the CTM as  a categorical
truth.
I just don't think it has the implications Bruno thinks.

 In the context of the foregoing, MGA makes a direct attack on CTM +
 PM = true via reductio: i.e. by demonstrating at least one class of
 physical reduction of a computation where any physical attachment
 theory must evaporate.  To emphasise: it isn't per se an attack on PM,
 only on the a priori conjunction of PM and CTM.  At what step do you
 say it is invalid?

Where he says computation can happen without any physicial process at
all. I don't see any evidence for that

  BTW, let's be clear: I'm not saying that physicalism is false
  (although IMO it is at least incomplete).  I'm merely pointing out one
  of its consequences.

  Which is what?

 That PM theory isn't justified in making an a priori claim to a
 'computational' theory of mind,

No-one has maintained that CTM is an implication
of PM

or indeed *any* a priori claim to
 organising principles transcending

Only Bruno thinks computation trancends matter.

the underlying physical processes.
 All conceptual overlays in this context must be, and indeed - with the
 outstanding exception of CTM - in practice always are, accepted as
 requiring justification a posteriori.

Have you read *any* of the literature on the CTM?

   It's prima facie possible for physicalism to be true
   and computationalism false. That is to say that
   the class of consciousness-causing processes might
   not coincide with any proper subset of the class
   of computaitonal processes.

  Yes, of course, this is precisely my point, for heaven's sake.  Here's
  the proposal, in your own words: assuming physicalism the class of
  consciousness-causing processes might not coincide with any proper
  subset of the class of computational processes.  Physicalist theory
  of mind urgently required.  QED

  I am arguing with Bruno about whether the eliminaiton of matter
  makes things easier for the MBP. I think it just give you less to work
  with.

 MBP??  

Mind body problem

At this stage, I'm really unclear on the basis of the above
 whether or not you actually wish to defend CTM + PM = true on a
 priori grounds.  Would you please clarify?

CTM *implies* materialism, and the MGA doesn't work.
CTM might still be false though.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-19 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 15:20, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 19 Aug 2009, at 10:36, Flammarion wrote:





  On 19 Aug, 01:29, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

  Bruno's position is that only one of the above can be true (i.e. CTM
  and PM are incompatible) as shown by UDA-8 (MGA/Olympia).   I've also
  argued this, in a somewhat different form.  Peter's position I think
  is that 1) and 2) are both false (or in any case that CTM and PM are
  compatible).  Hence the validity of UDA-8 - in its strongest form -
  seems central to the current dispute, since it is essentially this
  argument that motivates the appeal to arithmetical realism, the topic
  currently generating so much heat.  UDA-8 sets out to be provable or
  disprovable on purely logical grounds.

  I for one am unclear on what
  basis it could be attacked as invalid.  Can anyone show strong  
  grounds
  for this?

  Of course, no argument can validly come to a  metaphysical  
  conclusion--
  in this
  case, that matter does not exist --without making a single
  metaphysical assumption.

 I completely agree with that point, but I don't see the relevance.  
 Comp, alias CTM,

CTM does not have Platonism tacked on as a sub-hypothesis

Classical Digital mechanism, or Classical Computationalism, or just
comp, is the conjunction of the following three sub-hypotheses:

1)  The yes doctor hypothesis: It is the assumption, in cognitive
science, that it exists a level of description of my parts (whatever I
consider myself to be[2]) such that I would not be aware of any
experiential change in the case where a functionally correct digital
substitution is done of my parts at that level. We call that level the
substitution level. More simply said it is the act of faith of those
willing to say yes to their doctor for an artificial brain or an
artificial body graft made from some description at some level. We
will see such a level is unknowable. Note that some amount of folk or
�grand-mother psychology� has been implicitly used under the granting
of the notion of (self) awareness[3].

2)  Church Thesis. A modern version is that all digital universal
machines are equivalent with respect to the class of functions (from
the natural numbers to the natural numbers) they can compute[4]. It
can be shown that this entails such machines compute the same
functions, but also they can compute them in similar ways, i.e.
following similar algorithm. So, the thesis says, making abstraction
of computation time, all digital universal machine can simulate each
other exactly (I will say emulate each other).

3)  Arithmetical Realism (AR). This is the assumption that
arithmetical proposition, like �1+1=2,� or Goldbach conjecture, or the
inexistence of a bigger prime, or the statement that some digital
machine will stop, or any Boolean formula bearing on numbers, are true
independently of me, you, humanity, the physical universe (if that
exists), etc. It is a version of Platonism limited at least to
arithmetical truth. It should not be confused with the much stronger
Pythagorean form of AR, AR+, which asserts that only natural numbers
exist together with their nameable relations: all the rest being
derivative from those relations.

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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-19 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 13:35, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

 It doesn't.  It just has to be *amenable* of spelling out: i.e. if it
 is a posteriori compressed - for example into 'computational' language
 - then this demands that it be *capable* of prior justification by
 rigorous spelling out in physical terms for every conceptual
 reduction.  MGA claims to show that this is impossible for the
 conjunction of CTM and PM.  Of course, CTM on the basis of
 arithmetical realism is not spelled out either, but is immunised from
 physical paraphrase by making no appeal to PM for justification.

Err. yeah. The hard part is reducing mentation to computation.
The physical paraphrase of computation is just engineering,

 I understand both your discomfort with arithmetical realism and your
 defence of PM, but this discussion hinges on CTM +PM = true.
 Couldn't we try to focus on the validity or otherwise of this claim?

OK. It's invalid because you can't have computaiton with zero phyiscal
activity.

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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-19 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 13:48, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 On 19 Aug, 09:36, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:



   Bruno's position is that only one of the above can be true (i.e. CTM
   and PM are incompatible) as shown by UDA-8 (MGA/Olympia).   I've also
   argued this, in a somewhat different form.  Peter's position I think
   is that 1) and 2) are both false (or in any case that CTM and PM are
   compatible).  Hence the validity of UDA-8 - in its strongest form -
   seems central to the current dispute, since it is essentially this
   argument that motivates the appeal to arithmetical realism, the topic
   currently generating so much heat.  UDA-8 sets out to be provable or
   disprovable on purely logical grounds.  
  I for one am unclear on what
   basis it could be attacked as invalid.  Can anyone show strong grounds
   for this?

  Of course, no argument can validly come to a  metaphysical conclusion--
  in this
  case, that matter does not exist --without making a single
  metaphysical assumption.
  The argument is therefore invalid, or not purely logical

 Again, with respect, you appear to assume that MGA

I was refering to the UDA

argues that matter
 doesn't exist.  In fact it argues that CTM + PM = false, which is not
 the same thing at all.  It is possible to retain matter as primitive
 (which I for one don't rule out, dependent on a more complete
 understanding of mind-body) whilst relinquishing an a priori

hypothetical

:CTM.
 What would be needed, as I've said elsewhere, would be an alternative
 theory of mind which - like any other 'transcendent' a posteriori
 analysis - would be capable of direct elucidation in terms of of
 primary physical processes.  Bruno has argued separately against the
 plausibility of finding such a theory, but this isn't implicit in MGA,
 AFAICS.

 David
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-20 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 16:41, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

I don't see, indeed, how you can both define matter from
  contingent
  structures and still pretend that matter is primitive.

  I am saying that material existence *is* contingent
  existence. It is not a structure of anything.

  Plotinus says that too! Me too.
  With church thesis this is can be made more precise in term of not-
  computable or not-provable, or some relativizations.

  You're still not getting it. PM isn't a non-computable number.
  It isn't mathematical at all. You really do think in a box..

 If you believe that a deduction is not valid, you have to say where,
 and why.


1. Somehting X is non-computable
2. Everything is mathematical
3. Therefore X is a non-computable number.

The conclusion is valid. But (2) is a belief of yours that
I don't share. Hence *I* don't agree PM is a non-computable number


  Somehow you talk like you would be able to be *conscious* of the
  existence of primitive matter.

  Well, at least I don't talk about immaterial machines dreaming each
  other.

  In arithmetic, that happens all the time. More below.

  

  In arithemetic. people write down problems on blackboards and solve
  them.

 If comp is assumed, some computation correspond to dream, and their
 existence can be proved in arithmetic.

Mathematics cannot prove metaphysical claims.
Backwards-E is metaphysically non-commital.

 And the MGA argument shows that no machine can make the difference
 between real, virtual and arithmetical.

  There is no immaterial existence at all, and  my agreeign to have
  my brain physcially replicated doesn't prove there is.

 Meaning: UDA is non valid. I am still waiting your argument.

I don't grant step 0 -- the immaterial existence of a UD
or any other mathematical structure.

  You have to deny the theorem of elementary arithmetic, which are used
  by physicists (mostly through complex or trigonometric functions,
  which reintroduce the natural numbers in the continuum).

  No. I don't have to deny their truth. I just have to deny that
  mathematical
  existence is ontological existence.

 I have no clue what you mean by ontological existence,

It is what Platonists affirm of numbers and formalists deny

 except
 physical existence, but this beg the question.
 If you don't deny the arithmetical truth, you accept arithmetical
 realism, and you cannot deny the UD, so you should be able to follow
 the argument. And if you believe the conclusion is wrong, you should
 say where.

I have explained this over and over. I accept that
true backwards-E statements are true. I don't accept that backwards-E
means ontological existence.

  Since it [UD] does not exist, it does not contain anything.

 UD exists like PI exists.

That doesn't exist ontologically either

 The rest is taken into account in the
 argument that I am referring to.
 Don't say that PI and circle does not exists. Say that PI and circles
 does not exist physically. It is quite different.

Even Platonists regard them as existing non-physcially. If you don't
understand what the debate between Platonists, formalists ,
intuiotionists (etc)
is about, you need to read the literature.



  That is never going to get you further than mathematical existence.
  You still need the futher step of showing mathematical existence is
  ontological RITISAR existence.

 I still don't know if by RITSIAR you mean real in the sense my first
 person is real or real as my body is real.
 You told me that the difference is epistemological, and I can accept
 this (for a while). But that makes a huge difference in the meaning of
 RITSIAR. I cannot doubt my first person, but I can doubt my body.
 After UDA+MGA, my first person appears to have an infinity of bodies
 (like in QM without collapse), and this makes the difference between
 those two forms of RITSIAR even bigger.

UDA proves nothing without an argument of the actual, if non-physical,
existence of numbers.

  See conscience  mécanisme appendices for snapshot of a running
  mathematical DU. It exists mathematically. But it can be implemented
  materially , i.e. relatively to our most probable computations too.

  So? It hasn't been.

 It has been implemented, and it has run for a week in 1991. This is
 anecdotical. Just to say that the UD is a concrete program.

But it is hardly going to contain vast infinities after a week.

  The way to prevent it is the same way that all sceptical hypotheses
  are prevented. You just note that there is not a scrap of evidence
  for them. The only upshot of scepticism is that there is no
  certainty, and we have to argue for the position of the greatest
  plausibility.

 I have better that a scrap of evidence: a deductive argument. A proof,
 that COMP = physics has to emerge from numbers.

 But I have also evidences for comp, in the sense that the physics
 which emerge from numbers is a multiversial physics, and the quantum
 reality makes many people to consider that 

Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-20 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 21:49, Jesse Mazer laserma...@hotmail.com wrote:
  Date: Wed, 19 Aug 2009 13:21:19 -0700
  Subject: Re: Emulation and Stuff
  From: peterdjo...@yahoo.com
  To: everything-list@googlegroups.com

  On 19 Aug, 13:03, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
   009/8/19 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

I completely agree that **assuming primary matter** computation is a
physical process taking place in brains and computer hardware.  The
paraphrase argument - the one you said you agreed with - asserts that
*any* human concept is *eliminable*

No, reducible, not eliminable. That is an important distinction.

   Not in this instance.  The whole thrust of the paraphrase argument is
   precisely to show - in principle at least - that the reduced concept
   can be *eliminated* from the explanation.  You can do this with
   'life', so you should be prepared to do it with 'computation'.

  Showing that a word can be removed from a verbal formulation
  by substitution with s synonym is not *ontological* elimination.

 Of course it is--*according to the Quinean definition of ontology*. The 
 strange thing about your mode of argument is that you talk as though a word 
 like existence has some single true correct meaning, and that anyone who 
 uses it differently is just wrong--do you disagree with the basic premise 
 that the meaning of words is defined solely by usage and/or definitions? If 
 so, do you agree that there are in fact different ways this word is defined 
 by real people, even if we restrict our attention to the philosophical 
 community?

Note that I actually argued the point that paraphrase is not
elimination

 Provided you agree with that, your posts would be a lot less confusing if you 
 would distinguish between different definitions and state which one you meant 
 at a given time--for example, one might say I agree numbers have Quinean 
 existence but I think they lack material existence, or existence in the sense 
 that intelligent beings that appear in mathematical universes are actually 
 conscious beings with their own qualia.
We might call these three notions of existence Q-existence, M-
existence and C-existence for short. My argument with you has been
that even if one wishes to postulate a single universe, M-existence is
an unnecessary middleman and doesn't even seem well-defined, all we
need to do is postulate that out of all the mathematically possible
universes that have Q-existence, only one has C-existence.

The M-existence hypothesis is supported by the whole of science, and,
unlike the C-existence hypothesis, is in line
with the scientific claim that there was a long period when there was
no consciousness in the universe.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-20 Thread Flammarion



On 20 Aug, 02:23, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/19 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:





  On 19 Aug, 13:35, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

  It doesn't.  It just has to be *amenable* of spelling out: i.e. if it
  is a posteriori compressed - for example into 'computational' language
  - then this demands that it be *capable* of prior justification by
  rigorous spelling out in physical terms for every conceptual
  reduction.  MGA claims to show that this is impossible for the
  conjunction of CTM and PM.  Of course, CTM on the basis of
  arithmetical realism is not spelled out either, but is immunised from
  physical paraphrase by making no appeal to PM for justification.

  Err. yeah. The hard part is reducing mentation to computation.
  The physical paraphrase of computation is just engineering,

  I understand both your discomfort with arithmetical realism and your
  defence of PM, but this discussion hinges on CTM +PM = true.
  Couldn't we try to focus on the validity or otherwise of this claim?

  OK. It's invalid because you can't have computaiton with zero phyiscal
  activity.

 But that is **precisely** the conclusion of the reductio that MGA
 proposes.  MGA claims precisely that - as you say - since it is
 implausible to justify the ascription of computation to zero physical
 activity, if you still want to claim that there is computation 'going
 on', then it can't be attached to physical activity.  Are you
 questioning that MGA constitutes a valid instantiation of a physical
 TM?  What about Olympia?

I should have added that you can;t have computaton with zero
computational activity.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-20 Thread Flammarion


On 20 Aug, 13:30, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 On 20 Aug, 10:05, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 But also - just to dispose once and for all of this particular point -
 I want to be sure that you understand that I'm not arguing *for*
 eliminative materialism, except as devil's advocate (I'm sure you know
 this).  But one aspect of my recent discussions with Peter has been to
 bring to a focus the strict consequences of materialism, in precisely
 the honest way that you attribute to Dennett.  The trouble is, that
 Dennett, having eliminated the mind and hence the notorious 'problem',
 still cheerfully carries on deploying the same mind-dependent concepts
 as though nothing had happened!  In other words, his position is
 inconsistent and incoherent.  It's dualism for free!


Nope. He is a reductionist, not an eliminativist.

 So, in this context, let me try to understand your remark: with or
 without assuming PM (primitive matter) there is an mathematical notion
 of computation and of computability.  I would say - per Dennett, but
 understood *consistently* - that under the assumption that there is
 *only* primitive matter (i.e. material monism) - there strictly can be
 no appeal to such a notion as computation, because mathematics itself
 is eliminable per Qine.

That isn't elimination in the sense of eliminativism.

Don't misunderstand me - this is what is
 *wrong* with material monism - because to be consistent, one is either
 honestly forced to such an eliminativist conclusion (but then you must
 deny your own consciousness and all mental concepts), or you tacitly
 accept a form of dualism (but again without noticing!)  So I suppose
 that when you say with primitive matter that you don't mean
 **only** with primitive matter, but rather with primitive matter +
 computation - which is in effect a dualistic assumption.  Again,
 please don't misunderstand me - I regard comp as a coherent *monistic*
 approach to both mind and matter that seeks to 'eliminate' neither,
 and which brings the mind-body issues into full focus. But the
 assumption of PM *in addition* would transform it into a type of
 epiphenomenal dualism.

You are still confusing reduciton/identity with elimination

--

Early eliminativists such as Rorty and Feyerabend often confused two
different notions of the sort of elimination that the term
eliminative materialism entailed. On the one hand, they claimed, the
cognitive sciences that will ultimately give people a correct account
of the workings of the mind will not employ terms that refer to common-
sense mental states like beliefs and desires; these states will not be
part of the ontology of a mature cognitive science.[4][5] But critics
immediately countered that this view was indistinguishable from the
identity theory of mind.[1][13] Quine himself wondered what exactly
was so eliminative about eliminative materialism after all:
“   Is physicalism a repudiation of mental objects after all, or a
theory of them? Does it repudiate the mental state of pain or anger in
favor of its physical concomitant, or does it identify the mental
state with a state of the physical organism (and so a state of the
physical organism with the mental state)? [14]  ”

On the other hand, the same philosophers also claimed that common-
sense mental states simply do not exist. But critics pointed out that
eliminativists could not have it both ways: either mental states exist
and will ultimately be explained in terms of lower-level
neurophysiological processes or they do not.[1][13] Modern
eliminativists have much more clearly expressed the view that mental
phenomena simply do not exist and will eventually be eliminated from
people's thinking about the brain in the same way that demons have
been eliminated from people's thinking about mental illness and
psychopathology.[3]
-

WP
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-21 Thread Flammarion



On 20 Aug, 00:28, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 19 Aug 2009, at 22:21, Flammarion wrote:



  Where he says computation can happen without any physicial process at
  all. I don't see any evidence for that

 I am explaining this right now.

  Only Bruno thinks computation trancends matter.

 The notion of computation and computability have been discovered by
 Mathematicians working around the foundation crisis of math after the
 discovery by Cantor and others of paradoxes in set theory.

 The idea is that computation should be redefined as physical
 computation is a very recent one, and is due to people like David
 Deustch and Landauer. And it does not really work as such. Deutsch
 reconstruction of the Post-Church-Turing thesis is really a
 different thesis.

Of course you can have theoretical
truths about computation

But show me something that has been computed by
an immaterial computer.

  CTM *implies* materialism, and the MGA doesn't work.

 CTM is neutral on materialism, even if many materialist use
 incorrectly comp to put the mind body problem under the rug. UDA,
 including MGA, shows why this fails.

 What is in MGA which does not work?

It's a reductio of the idea that mental states
supervene on computational states.
CTM must be cast as the claim
that mental activity supervenes on computational
activity.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-21 Thread Flammarion



On 20 Aug, 01:00, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/19 Jesse Mazer laserma...@hotmail.com:

 So someone else noticed Peter dodging the consequences of what he
 originally claimed with respect to Quinean paraphrase!  Thanks.

What consequence was that?
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-21 Thread Flammarion



On 20 Aug, 00:43, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 19 Aug 2009, at 22:59, Flammarion wrote:





  On 19 Aug, 15:20, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 19 Aug 2009, at 10:36, Flammarion wrote:

  On 19 Aug, 01:29, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

  Bruno's position is that only one of the above can be true (i.e.  
  CTM
  and PM are incompatible) as shown by UDA-8 (MGA/Olympia).   I've  
  also
  argued this, in a somewhat different form.  Peter's position I  
  think
  is that 1) and 2) are both false (or in any case that CTM and PM  
  are
  compatible).  Hence the validity of UDA-8 - in its strongest form -
  seems central to the current dispute, since it is essentially this
  argument that motivates the appeal to arithmetical realism, the  
  topic
  currently generating so much heat.  UDA-8 sets out to be provable  
  or
  disprovable on purely logical grounds.

  I for one am unclear on what
  basis it could be attacked as invalid.  Can anyone show strong
  grounds
  for this?

  Of course, no argument can validly come to a  metaphysical
  conclusion--
  in this
  case, that matter does not exist --without making a single
  metaphysical assumption.

  I completely agree with that point, but I don't see the relevance.
  Comp, alias CTM,

  CTM does not have Platonism tacked on as a sub-hypothesis

  Classical Digital mechanism, or Classical Computationalism, or just
  comp, is the conjunction of the following three sub-hypotheses:

  1)      The yes doctor hypothesis: It is the assumption, in cognitive
  science, that it exists a level of description of my parts (whatever I
  consider myself to be[2]) such that I would not be aware of any
  experiential change in the case where a functionally correct digital
  substitution is done of my parts at that level. We call that level the
  substitution level. More simply said it is the act of faith of those
  willing to say yes to their doctor for an artificial brain or an
  artificial body graft made from some description at some level. We
  will see such a level is unknowable. Note that some amount of folk or
  grand-mother psychology has been implicitly used under the  
  granting
  of the notion of (self) awareness[3].

  2)      Church Thesis. A modern version is that all digital universal
  machines are equivalent with respect to the class of functions (from
  the natural numbers to the natural numbers) they can compute[4]. It
  can be shown that this entails such machines compute the same
  functions, but also they can compute them in similar ways, i.e.
  following similar algorithm. So, the thesis says, making abstraction
  of computation time, all digital universal machine can simulate each
  other exactly (I will say emulate each other).

  3)      Arithmetical Realism (AR). This is the assumption that
  arithmetical proposition, like 1+1=2, or Goldbach conjecture,  
  or the
  inexistence of a bigger prime, or the statement that some digital
  machine will stop, or any Boolean formula bearing on numbers, are true
  independently of me, you, humanity, the physical universe (if that
  exists), etc. It is a version of Platonism limited at least to
  arithmetical truth. It should not be confused with the much stronger
  Pythagorean form of AR, AR+, which asserts that only natural numbers
  exist together with their nameable relations: all the rest being
  derivative from those relations.

 Thanks for quoting my sane2004 definition of comp, and showing that  
 indeed platonism is not part of it.

It is a version of Platonism

 Just arithmetical realism without which CT has no meaning at all.

The CT thesis requires some mathematical
claims to be true. it doesn't require numbers to actually exist

 This  
 should be made clear in the seventh step series thread.

 You told us that you are OK with AR some post ago, but now I have no  
 more clue at all about what do you assume or not.

I may well have subscribed to some truth claims

 Get the feeling you have change your mind on AR. You believe that a  
 proposition like the statement that there is no biggest prime number  
 has something to do with physics. In which physical theory you prove  
 that statement, and how?

Its truth is not  a physical truth. The existence or non-existence
asserted is not any kind of real existence

 Actually the most you go deep in fundamental physics, the more you  
 need deep results in number theory.

I am not denying nay truths, only the interpretation of backwards-E
as actual existence

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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-21 Thread Flammarion



On 20 Aug, 02:23, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/19 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:





  On 19 Aug, 13:35, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

  It doesn't.  It just has to be *amenable* of spelling out: i.e. if it
  is a posteriori compressed - for example into 'computational' language
  - then this demands that it be *capable* of prior justification by
  rigorous spelling out in physical terms for every conceptual
  reduction.  MGA claims to show that this is impossible for the
  conjunction of CTM and PM.  Of course, CTM on the basis of
  arithmetical realism is not spelled out either, but is immunised from
  physical paraphrase by making no appeal to PM for justification.

  Err. yeah. The hard part is reducing mentation to computation.
  The physical paraphrase of computation is just engineering,

  I understand both your discomfort with arithmetical realism and your
  defence of PM, but this discussion hinges on CTM +PM = true.
  Couldn't we try to focus on the validity or otherwise of this claim?

  OK. It's invalid because you can't have computaiton with zero phyiscal
  activity.

 But that is **precisely** the conclusion of the reductio that MGA
 proposes.  MGA claims precisely that - as you say - since it is
 implausible to justify the ascription of computation to zero physical
 activity, if you still want to claim that there is computation 'going
 on', then it can't be attached to physical activity.

I don't; want to claim there is computation still going on

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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-21 Thread Flammarion



On 20 Aug, 11:31, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 20 Aug 2009, at 10:46, Flammarion wrote:


 Indeed, you don't believe in the number seven. But sometimes you seem  
 to believe in their mathematical existence, and that is all what I  
 need.

No. I always qualify mathematical existence as a mere
truth claim that adds up to nothing ontologically.

The UD exists in the same sense than the number seven.
 If you don't believe in the mathematical existence of the number  
 seven,

I believe in backwards-E 7. I don't believe that
is enough to generate RITSTIAR. THat would be
like a fictional character coming to life

then indeed you cannot go farther than step zero.
 I let you know you are the first person on this planet who does not  
 believe in the mathematical existence of the number seven.

  I have no clue what you mean by ontological existence,

  It is what Platonists affirm of numbers and formalists deny

 Formalist accept arithmetical existence. They reject set theoretical  
 existence.
 They need arithmetical existence to define their formal systems.

Not at all. That is more like intuitionism or something


  I have explained this over and over. I accept that
  true backwards-E statements are true. I don't accept that backwards-E
  means ontological existence.

 When science tackle fundamental question, it is better to be agnostic  
 and abandon any ontological commitment.
 Your ontological, and philosophical commitment, seems to prevent you  
 to even read the reasoning.

You have as much ontological commitment as I.

  Since it [UD] does not exist, it does not contain anything.

  UD exists like PI exists.

  That doesn't exist ontologically either

 The point is that the proof goes on with such form on not necessarily  
 ontological existence, or you have to show where in the reasoning  
 things get wrong.

1. Something that ontologically exists can only be caused or generated
by something else that does
2. I ontologically exist
3. According to you, I am generated by the UD
4. Therefore the UD must ontologically exist.

Step 4 is really step 0 which I have worked backwards
to here


  That is never going to get you further than mathematical existence.
  You still need the futher step of showing mathematical existence is
  ontological RITISAR existence.

  I still don't know if by RITSIAR you mean real in the sense my first
  person is real or real as my body is real.
  You told me that the difference is epistemological, and I can accept
  this (for a while). But that makes a huge difference in the meaning  
  of
  RITSIAR. I cannot doubt my first person, but I can doubt my body.
  After UDA+MGA, my first person appears to have an infinity of bodies
  (like in QM without collapse), and this makes the difference between
  those two forms of RITSIAR even bigger.

  UDA proves nothing without an argument of the actual, if non-physical,
  existence of numbers.

 I need the usual mathematical existence of number.

There is no usual one, since there is no one agreed ontology
of mathematics. You are aware. are you not, that philosophers
and mathematicians are still writing books and papers attacking
and defending Platonism and other approaches?

There is of course a standard set of backwards-E claims

By comp, the  ontic  
 theory of everything is shown to be any theory in which I can  
 represent the computable function. The very weak Robinson Arithmetic  
 is already enough.

I am not interested in haggling over which pixies exist.


  The way to prevent it is the same way that all sceptical hypotheses
  are prevented. You just note that there is not a scrap of evidence
  for them. The only upshot of scepticism is that there is no
  certainty, and we have to argue for the position of the greatest
  plausibility.

  I have better that a scrap of evidence: a deductive argument. A  
  proof,
  that COMP = physics has to emerge from numbers.

  But I have also evidences for comp, in the sense that the physics
  which emerge from numbers is a multiversial physics, and the quantum
  reality makes many people to consider that we may live in a
  multiversial reality. And I have also more technical evidences coming
  from the Arithmetical UDA. That are evidence for comp.

  I can't be in something that has merely mathematical existence,  
  any
  more than I can be in Nanrnia

  ... then CTM (comp) is false, and you should help us to find the  
  error

  comp is false because comp=CTM+CTT+AR
  CTM is not falsified.

 comp = CTM.

It clearly isn't by the defintiion you gave in
your SANE paper.

 You may repeat the contrary as much as you want, but comp  
 is CTM. You are the one who has invented a sequence of notion like  
 seven needs to have actual or ontological existence for the reasoning  
 to go through, but you have never show where in the reasoning I am  
 using such actuality or ontologicalness.




  in UDA, instead of just denying existence for what almost everybody
  accepts

Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-21 Thread Flammarion



On 15 Aug, 02:40, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/14 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  I think need to take a hard line on RITSIAR.  I feel that the key lies
  in what Bruno terms the certainty of the ontological first person
  (OFP): i.e. the sine qua non of reality as it is uniquely available to
  us.  Since this is inescapably the foundation of any and all
  judgements whatsoever, it is simultaneously both the both point of
  departure and the 'what-is-to-be-explained' of RITSIAR.  In this light
  it becomes self-evident that any and all explanatory entities -
  physical, computational, or whatever - are severely restricted to the
  domain of epistemology.  IOW - as Bruno says above - they are
  theoretical constructions.

  That doesn't follow at all. A theoretical construct can have a real
  referent. eg, if the theory of quarks is true , quarks exist. What
  else
  would theory X is true mean?

 Yes, of course, I agree with you that we take our references to have
 real referents.  Part of our problem in discussion I think is that you
 tend to attribute views to me that - if I held them - would indeed be
 fatuous.  Now, you are within your rights to say that it's my fault
 for giving you this impression.  But I can only reply that my
 intention is to draw attention to something more subtle, and this is
 difficult.

 I think if I had to sum up the point of departure for more or less
 everything I've been saying, it would be that I question the
 assumption that everything we can discover or know about the world can
 be exhausted by describing its observable behaviour - whatever the
 model.  This is I think what has been called the 'view from nowhere'
 and - wonderfully useful though it undoubtedly is, and prone as I am
 myself to rely on it much of the time - I'm not alone in criticising
 it in the context of mind-body issues.  And this is because it seems
 to me - though I think not to you - that in this domain alone we're
 forced out of our view from nowhere and confronted with the fact that
 what we're trying to explain by observation is the very phenomenon
 we're using to make the observation.  And this is the problem.

It might be. It isn't obviously the case that
cosnciousness wouldn't be able to account for itself.

  So far so obvious.  But - as has again been recognised immemorially -
  solipsism is a dead-end and hence we seek a theory to capture the
  relation between the OFP and its environment.  But immediately we are
  faced with the notorious 'explanatory gap',
  and it seems to me that
  its most precise expression is in the gap between ontology and
  epistemology.

  I don;t know what explanatory gap you are talking about,
  but is doesn't sound like Levine's one.

 Well, as I imply above, I'm using ontology in the sense of 'what it is
 to be' - not 'what it is to describe' - so maybe we need another term
 to avoid confusion.  So the gap is the one between these two things.



  What is Ontological certainty? Certainty belongs to epistemolgoy,
  so onotlogical can't bve qualifying certainty. Do you mean
  something like the one certain fact about ontology/existence?

 My rhetorical question was how do we reach a state of certainty about
 'what it is to be' on the basis of 'what it is to describe'.

Why do we need certainty?

 To which
 my response is that we can't, because in the area of the first person
 we have indubitable acquaintance with at least some aspect of the
 former.

That doesn't support the conclusion by itself. You also need to argue
for lack of certainty in descriptions

 And in my view, this acquaintance is so alien to 'what is
 described'

with regard to consciousness , or generally?

 that the assumption of the gap being bridged on the basis
 of *any* model of observability can only be a brute apriori
 assumption.  Now I know that many people aren't troubled by this, and
 some just are.  Frankly, by this stage I'm ready to put it down to
 differences in imaginative style, what we're trying to achieve
 personally with our thinking, or something equally idiosyncratic.  I
 don't really believe it can be resolved entirely by persuasion.

Do you concede that many aspects of mind -- cognition, memory and so
on --
are not part of any Hard Problem?

  Realism doesn;t need the
  existence of a non-mental world to be a certainty, it just needs
  it to be more plausible than the alternatives.

 Yes, in general I agree with you.

Then what is the significance of Ontological Certainty?

But I suppose on the mind-body
 question, the various positions that I've successively tried to hold
 on to (and I think I've traversed most of them over the last 30 years
 or so) having become less and less plausible to me.  I don't want to
 be a mysterian, but I think that the assumption that with a bit more
 effort we've got the mind sorted on the basis of current theories will
 turn out to be more like Lord Kelvin's notorious dicta on black-body
 radiation and the ether wind.  

Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-21 Thread Flammarion



On 21 Aug, 17:25, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 On 21 Aug, 09:37, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

   Yes, of course you're right - perhaps I didn't phrase my response to
   Jesse clearly enough.  In my discussion with Peter about Quinean
   'eliminative paraphrasing', I was pursuing the same conclusion that
   you attribute to Dennett as an 'honest materialist'.  That is, under
   materialism, that persons, consciousness - and computation - must in
   the end be explained away, or conceptually *eliminated*.

  Explaining away qua reduction is nto the same as
  explaining away qua elimination.

 Well, either way he's explaining away, as you yourself point out
 below.  But it's a false distinction, as I point out below.

   But also - just to dispose once and for all of this particular point -
   I want to be sure that you understand that I'm not arguing *for*
   eliminative materialism, except as devil's advocate (I'm sure you know
   this).  But one aspect of my recent discussions with Peter has been to
   bring to a focus the strict consequences of materialism, in precisely
   the honest way that you attribute to Dennett.  The trouble is, that
   Dennett, having eliminated the mind and hence the notorious 'problem',
   still cheerfully carries on deploying the same mind-dependent concepts
   as though nothing had happened!

  The upshot of which is that he *hasn't* eliminated the mind
  (with the possible exception of qualia)
  in the sense of Eliminative Materialism, only reduced it in the
  sense of Reductive materialism.

 What do you mean with the possible exception of qualia!  The whole
 point is that if you think you can leave qualitative experience out of
 the account you're an eliminativist.  Qualia are precisely what is
 being eliminated.

He is a selective eliminativist. He is not being
inconsistent. Having eiminated qualia, he deosn;t
continue to talk about them. He does continue to talk
about memory, thought and perception, but then he
hasn't eilminated them.

   In other words, his position is
   inconsistent and incoherent.  It's dualism for free!

  In other words, his position isn't what you have decided it is.

 What do you mean?  Are you saying he's an eliminativist or a crypto-
 dualist?  Or are you implying that (possibly!) non-qualitative
 reductive materialism is something different than either of these?

he is eliminativist about qualia and reductionist about everything
else.

   So, in this context, let me try to understand your remark: with or
   without assuming PM (primitive matter) there is an mathematical notion
   of computation and of computability.  I would say - per Dennett, but
   understood *consistently* - that under the assumption that there is
   *only* primitive matter (i.e. material monism) - there strictly can be
   no appeal to such a notion as computation, because mathematics itself
   is eliminable per Qine.

  No. Paraphrase indicates identity. Water can be paraphrased
  as H2O. That means water is identical to H2O. not that
  water does not and cannot exist. Water is only eliminated
  as *fundamental* (eg. the way the Greeks thought of it).
  EliminativISM is a much stronger claim, that the concept
  eliminated should never subsequently be used even as
  a place-holder or shrothand

 Yes, so following your recipe above, a given computation can be
 paraphrased as a specific physical process.  This means that this
 computation is identical to that physical process.  'Computation' is
 therefore eliminated as something fundamental (in the Greek sense).
 Consequently, this leaves CTM+PM with 'computation' as a mere
 shorthand for an appeal to the fundamental physical processes, or
 alternatively with no appeal to anything fundamental whatsoever.

Yes, yes, and yes. Why would that be a problem?

 Further, I can't possibly agree with your contention that
 'eliminativism' is any other or stronger claim than this.

Uh-huh. And where are you getting your information
on eliminativism from?

This would
 be absurd, as well as unnecessary, because it would mean that we would
 be struck dumb.

Only if we eliminated everything,. and only if we did not have
substitute theory. Elimiativists think terms like thought will
simply be abandoned as part of a failed theory,
(like phlosgiston), rather than continuing as convenient
but not entirely accurate shorthand. But they don't expect
this to happen until the replacement theories are
perfected. So they don't expect to be struck dumb.

 There is no problem with using the 'eliminated'
 concept as a shorthand (indeed this is explicitly proposed in the
 Quinean excerpt you commented).

Says who? Eliminativists argue that there is.
You may not agree, but you cannot conclude
that no-one holds those views.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eliminativism

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/materialism-eliminative/
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-23 Thread Flammarion



On 19 Aug, 15:16, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 19 Aug 2009, at 10:33, Flammarion wrote:





  On 19 Aug, 08:49, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 19 Aug 2009, at 02:31, Brent Meeker wrote:

  Bruno Marchal wrote:

  This is not the point. The point is that if you develop a correct
  argumentation that you are material, and that what we see  
  around us
  is material, then the arithmetical P. Jone(s) will also find a
  correct
  argumentation that *they* are material, and that what they see is
  material. The problem is that if you are correct in our physical
  reality their reasoning will be correct too, and false of course.
  But
  then your reasoning has to be false too.
  The only way to prevent this consists in saying that you are not
  Turing-emulable,

  Why can't I just say I'm not Turing emulated?  It seems that your
  argument uses MGA to
  conclude that no physical instantaion is needed so Turing-
  emulable=Turing-emulated.  It
  seems that all you can conclude is one cannot *know* that they have
  a correct argument
  showing they are material.  But this is already well known from
  brain in a vat thought
  experiments.

  OK. But this seems to me enough to render invalid any reasoning
  leading to our primitive materiality.
  If a reasoning is valid, it has to be valid independently of being
  published or not, written with ink or carbon, being in or outside the
  UD*. I did not use MGA here.

  That is false. You are tacitly assuming that PM has to be argued
  with the full force of necessity --

 I don't remember. I don't find trace of what makes you think so. Where?

Well, if it;s tacit you wouldn't find  a trace.

Other than that. all pointing out that I might be in a UDA
and therefore wrong doesn't mean I am wrong now. only
that I am not necessarily right.

If you don't think the UDA is meant to show that
I am not necessarily right, maybe you could say what
it is meant to show


  although your own argument does
  not have that force.

 If there is a weakness somewhere, tell us where.

The conclusion of your argument *is* a necessary truth?

  In fact, PM only has to be shown to be more
  plausible than the alternatives. It is not necessarily true because of
  sceptical hypotheses like the BIV and the UD, but since neither of
  them has much prima-facie plausibility, the plausibility og PM
  is not impacted much

 ?  Ex(x = UD) is a theorem of elementary arithmetic.

backwards-E x=UD is indeed true. Schools should not
be teaching that backwards-E means ontological existence,
since that is an open question among philosophers.

 I have been taught elementary arithmetic in school, and I don't think  
 such a theory has been refuted since.

 You will tell me that mathematical existence = non existence at all.  
 You are the first human who says so.

I am not the first formalist.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-27 Thread Flammarion



On 24 Aug, 16:23, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 22 Aug 2009, at 21:10, Brent Meeker wrote:

 But you see Brent, here you confirm that materialist are religious in
 the way they try to explain, or explain away the mind body problem. I
 can imagine that your consciousness supervene on something
 uncomputable in the universe. But we have not find anything
 uncomputable in the universe, except the quantum indeterminacy, but
 this is the kind of uncomputability predicted by the comp theory (and
 AUDA suggested it is exactly the uncomputable aspect of the universe
 predicted by comp).

 So you are postulating an unknown property of matter just to make the
 comp theory false. This is really a matter-of-the gaps (cf god-of-the
 gaps) use of matter.

No uncomputable property is needed. If it is a fact that consc.
supervenes
directly on matter, then no immaterial machine or virtualisation can
be conscious.
That does not prove CTM false, but it does disprove the argument that
if physics is computible, then the CTM is true

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-27 Thread Flammarion



On 26 Aug, 01:00, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

 Just so. To recapitulate the (approximate) history of this part of the
 discussion, Peter and I had been delving into the question - posed by
 him - of whether a complete scan of a brain at the subatomic level
 could in principle capture all the available 'information'.  So my
 rider about brain-mind correlation was in the context of that specific
 question posed in that specific way.

 As to your more general musings John, I suppose the line I've been
 pursuing is questioning the applicability of the soi-disant 'view from
 nowhere' - i.e. the notion of 'information' as being comprehensible in
 any totally extrinsic, abstracted, uninterpreted sense.  Because we
 can't help being fish, we can't help but swim in our interpretations.
 And we can only guess what oceans alien fish may swim in.

That is really rather tangential to the original claim. The original
claim was that all the information in subjective awareness is also
in the phsycial brain.

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-27 Thread Flammarion



On 27 Aug, 01:35, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/27 Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com:

  The idea of 'being' somebody (or thing) else already assumes dualism.
  It assumes some 'I' that could move to be Stathis or a bat and yet
  retain some identity.  But on a functionalist view 'I' already am
  Stathis and a bat - in other words there is no 'I', it's the creation
  of viewpoint by each functional entity.  In that case being someone
  else in incommunicable in principle because the concept in incoherent.

 Well, I completely agree with all of that, but what made you think
 that what I was saying was anything to do with being somebody else?  I
 think I did a bad job of articulating my line of argument.  As I've
 said, I can't make any sense of a functionalist view on the basis of
 PM.  To be coherent, functionalism must treat physical entities as
 mere relational placeholders,

I can't see why. Note that funcitonalism is only a claim about
minds. not  a claim that everyhting si a function

and hence the supplementary assumption
 of PM or any other primitively non-functional ontology is either
 simply redundant or weirdly dualistic AFAICS.

PM is not redundant if it introduces contingencty
and thereby solves the WR problem.

I thought this before
 ever encountering Bruno's ideas, but his articulation of comp has
 given me another angle of attack on this key intuition.  To be clear:
 I'm not per se arguing against functionalist accounts, but like Bruno
 I believe that their task is to explain the *appearance* of the
 material, not their own spooky emergence from it.

 But beyond even that, what I was articulating was my own version of
 strict eliminativism.  IOW if we sincerely want to be monists we must
 be ready in principle to reduce *all* our various conceptual accounts
 to one in terms of the differentiables of a single ontic context.

Yes--NB reduce

 And
 unless we're eliminativists about personal existence, that had better
 be the one we already occupy.

Why.? Since reduction does not *remove* what is reduced, but
only identifies it with a reduction base. Physical reductionists just
have
to say their minds are their brains, not that their minds are non-
existent.

There's a tendency to argue this
 context away as merely epistemic and not ontic,

I stil don't know what you mean by that

but this distinction
 can be shown to collapse with very little logical effort.  I know not
 everyone accepts this view, especially in the 'hard' sciences, but
 there are very notable exceptions, some of them amongst its most
 distinguished practitioners.  Obviously, for this to have any chance
 of success as a programme, all the other accounts must be in principle
 paraphraseable as aspects or modalities of this single contextual
 account, but again IMO the standard arguments against this seem to
 miss the point.

 David



  David Nyman wrote:
  2009/8/26 Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com:

  I don't see that.  I conjectured that with sufficient knowledge of the
  environment in which the alien functioned and input-outputs at the
  corresponding level, one could provide and account of the alien's
  experience.  I was my point that simply looking at the alien's brain,
  without the context of its function, would not suffice.

  I can't tell what you mean by provide an account.  Do you mean that
  one could provide some account of all this in functional terms that
  *we could interpret* in ways that made contextual sense *for us* -
  standing in, as it were, for the alien?  If so, this is what I meant
  when I said to Stathis that it really becomes equivalent to the
  problem of other minds, in that if we can coax the data into making
  sense for us, we can extrapolate this by implication to the alien.
  But that would tend to make it a rather human alien, wouldn't it?

  The question is whether PM is sufficient to describe the system.
  Language is almost certainly inadequate to describing what it is like
  to 'be' the system - you cannot even fully describe what it is like to
  be you.

  I'm questioning something more subtle here, I think.  First, one could
  simply decide to be eliminativist about experience, and hold that the
  extrinsic PM account is both exhaustive and singular.  In this case,
  'being' anything is simply an extrinsic notion.  But if we're not in
  this sort of denial, then the idea of 'being' the system subtly
  encourages the intuition that there's some way to be that
  simultaneously satisfies two criteria:

  1) Point-for-point isomorphism - in some suitable sense - with the
  extrinsic description.
  2) An intrinsic nature that is incommunicable in terms of the
  extrinsic description alone.

  Even if there PM and functionalism is true, (1) and (2) are dubious.
  Extrinsic descriptions are necessarily in terms of shared experiences
  and so may not be complete.  Incommunicable is ambiguous. It could
  mean impossible in principle or it could mean we haven't 

Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-27 Thread Flammarion

On 21 Aug, 16:39, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/21 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  Do you concede that many aspects of mind -- cognition, memory and so
  on --
  are not part of any Hard Problem?

 Yes, absolutely.  But I think our basic divergence is that I say you
 can't end up at these destinations unless you buy the ticket at the
 point of departure - the ticket being what I've called self-access
 (i.e. as a characteristic of the situation as a whole, not of parts
 taken in isolation).

I don't think self-access is part of the Hard Problem either. It isn't
difficult to get a computer to report on its internal state.

 Look, when I asked you how far down in our
 analysis of the material do we have to go before the entities are no
 longer material? your reply was in effect all the way down.


Note that in these discussions there is a distinction between Primary
Matter and Emprirical
Matter.  Empirical Matter is known through its properties and
behaviour.  PM isn't,
hence the suspicion that it is redundant.  The link between PM an
contingency itself is the
response to that, and it ensures that no contingent discvoery can
elimnate PM.


  I think physicalism has been generally succesful and as much
  of it should be retained as possible. hence the need to focus
  on the key issues in the MBP

 Yes, I wouldn't disagree with the spirit of that.  But I also say we
 must continue to be alert to the possibility of gaps in some of our
 basic assumptions.  I think part of the trouble is that to be
 successful at anything, one has to push like mad, and this inevitably
 leads - most especially when a particular approach has been very
 successful - to the tendency to push it beyond usefulness. It probably
 can't be avoided.  All I'm saying is that there is a long-standing
 metaphysical corrective that has always stood to one side of
 physicalism, and from time to time it's worth carefully reconsidering
 it.

And what is this corrective? You think a small amount
of anti-relaism can be mixed in with materialism? You think
a small amount of idealism can be mixed in?


  Yes, but my view is that mind-body shows us that to consider the
  referent of a theoretical statement to be something 'external' is in
  fact the category error - i.e. the view from nowhere again.

  Referents are external by definition. So you must be sayign that no
  theory ever has a referent. But you have not said why.

 I'm drawing attention to the fact that 'external' and 'internal' are
 epistemic polarisations

Well, when the terms are taken literally they are spatial...

which, in terms of any consistent monism, must
 be seen as aspects of a unique ontic continuum.   When we carefully
 examine what is entailed in conscious 'observation' we find that the
 very act of qualitatively reifying or embodying local representations

This is most unclear. Is a “local representation” meant to
be a mental representation? Is reifying it supposed to be
taking it to have  referent?

 entails the draining of proper ('internal') qualities from their
 putative referents, thus 'externalising' them and abandoning them to
 the realm of the 'non-conscious'.  So the 'red apple' is embodied
 'redly' in my consciousness, but the qualitative embodiment of the
 referent is not thereby locally realised.  This is the fons et origo
 of the MBP, IMO.  More below.

I couln't make any sense of that at all.

  Someone
  (can't remember who) put it like this: what is the external world
  supposed to be external to?

  My head

 Yes, but try to see that in the context of what I said above.  What
 I'm saying requires a shift in viewpoint.  If you don't make it - even
 experimentally - what I'm saying will inevitably sound like gibberish.
  OTOH, trying it for size doesn't commit you to the purchase.

Maybe it requires me to make a shift in viewpoint, maybe it
requires you to use more normal vocabulary.


  YOu still haven't said about how you got into contact with the inner--
  or at least any inner other than your own.

 Well, I'm not arguing for solipsism, so I reason on the basis that my
 inner isn't that much different to yours.

That just gives you more than one noumenal self. What about
the noumena of chairs and tables?

As for getting into
 contact, perhaps this is the crux.  I think that your view of
 consciousness is that it is mere epistemology,

No. (I don't even use “epistemology” that way. Nothing “is”
epstemology
except discussions of truth and knowledgeamongst philosophers).

 and hence that it can't
 in and of itself tell us anything fundamental about ontology.

I don't think it revelas it sown ontology. OTOH, it must somehow
be taken accounto fi in any succesful ontology because everything
must.

 Well
 you know of course that this is disputed - Bishop Berkeley, Vedanta,
 the perennial philosophy, etc - and on what I think are good logical
 grounds.  If I assume that my experience is a matter *merely* of
 observation, I can't help getting

Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-27 Thread Flammarion



On 21 Aug, 21:01, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 Flammarion wrote:

  Do you think that if you scanned my brain right down to the atomic
  level,
  you still wouldn't have captured all the information?

 That's an interesting question and one that I think relates to the
 importance of context.  A scan of your brain would capture all the
 information in the Shannon/Boltzman sense, i.e. it would determine which
 of the possible configurations and processes were realized.  However,
 those concerned about the hard problem, will point out that this
 misses the fact that the information represents or means something.
 To know the meaning of the information would require knowledge of the
 world in which the brain acts and perceives, including a lot of
 evolutionary history.  Image scanning the brain of an alien found  in a
 crash at Roswell.  Without knowledge of how he acts and the evolutionary
 history of his species it would be essentially impossible to guess the
 meaning of the patterns in his brain.  My point is that it is not just
 computation that is consciousness or cognition, but computation with
 meaning, which means within a certain context of action.



But figuring out stored sensory information should be about the
easiest part of the task. If you can trace a pathway from a red
sensor to a storage unit, the information in the unit has to mean
this is red.
What is hard about the Hard Problem is *not* interpretation or
context.
It is easier to write a book on the van Gogh's iconography than it
is to explain how The Sunflowers *looks*.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-27 Thread Flammarion



On 21 Aug, 20:40, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 21 Aug 2009, at 17:39, David Nyman wrote:

 With UDA alone, of course not.

 But AUDA does provides a a theory of qualia which explains why no 1-
 person can and will ever explain the qualitative feature of its qualia.

It treats qualia as *cognitive* blind spots. But having quale which
you can't
expalin is a perceptual experience , it is not like being unable to
recall a fact.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-27 Thread Flammarion



On 26 Aug, 17:58, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 26 Aug 2009, at 17:58, Brent Meeker wrote:

  What about lower levels?  Surely it doesn't matter whether 10,000 K+
  cross the axon membrane or 10,001 cross.  So somehow looking at just
  the right level matters in the hypothesis of functionalism.  Maybe
  that level corresponds to the level at which the organism acts; the
  functions evolved to support and direct actions.  Rocks don't act so
  they don't have any functional level.

 You are right. A simpler example is a dreamer and a rock, and the
 whole universe. They have locally the same input and output: none!  So
 they are functionally identical,

On the most coarse-grained view possible.

yet very different from the first
 person perspective. This is why in comp I make explicit the existence
 of a level of substitution. It is the only difference with
 functionalism which is usually vague on that point. It is a key point.

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-27 Thread Flammarion



On 27 Aug, 08:54, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/26 David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com:

 This is because if consciousness is a computational process then it is
 independant of the (physical or ... virtual) implementation. If I
 perfom the computation on an abacus or within my head or with stones
 on the ground... it is the same (from the computation pov).

 And that's my problem with physicalism. How can it account for the
 independance of implementation if computations are not real ?

Physcialism doesn't say that computations aren't real. It says
real instances of computation are identical to physical processes.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-28 Thread Flammarion



On 27 Aug, 20:11, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/27 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  and hence that it can't
  in and of itself tell us anything fundamental about ontology.

  I don't think it revelas it sown ontology. OTOH, it must somehow
  be taken accounto fi in any succesful ontology because everything
  must.

 I've considered the various comments you've made recently and I've
 been wondering how best to proceed in our discussion, to try to avoid
 going round in circles.  I'd like to focus on the question of
 ontology.  You say above that consciousness doesn't reveal its own
 ontology.  If by this you mean that consciousness - in virtue of its
 mere presence - doesn't provide its own analysis, then of course this
 is obviously true.  But this is not what I'm getting at here.  I've
 said pretty clearly that I'm trying to articulate some of the
 implications of an 'eastern' metaphysics such as Vedanta.  A typical
 statement in this tradition is something like everything is
 consciousness, and this is indeed broadly the sense in which I'm
 ascribing ontological primacy to this category.

I'm more interested in grounds than implications. If
consc. does not reveal its own ontology, some other grounds are needed
for making it basic.

 The term consciousness carries so much freight that I'd prefer some
 more neutral expression such as primitive self-availability, but as
 you've said, non-standard vocabulary carries its own burden.  Anyway,
 it's the uneliminable intrinsic availability that Chalmers is getting
 at in his zombie reductio.   Any claim on this as the primitive ontic
 substrate, naturally entails that all other accounts must in principle
 be reducible or paraphraseable in terms of it, and I think that in
 fact Chalmers' own information-based dual-aspect approach has
 something useful to say on this score.  Essentially, at the end of the
 short exposition in Facing up to the Problem of Consciousness, he
 summarises the problems pretty well, and comes up with more or less
 the same intuition, adjusting for vocabulary.   Here's the quote:

 Once a fundamental link between information and experience is on the
 table, the door is opened to some grander metaphysical speculation
 concerning the nature of the world. For example, it is often noted
 that physics characterizes its basic entities only extrinsically, in
 terms of their relations to other entities, which are themselves
 characterized extrinsically, and so on. The intrinsic nature of
 physical entities is left aside. Some argue that no such intrinsic
 properties exist, but then one is left with a world that is pure
 causal flux (a pure flow of information) with no properties for the
 causation to relate. If one allows that intrinsic properties exist, a
 natural speculation given the above is that the intrinsic properties
 of the physical - the properties that causation ultimately relates -
 are themselves phenomenal properties. We might say that phenomenal
 properties are the internal aspect of information. This could answer a
 concern about the causal relevance of experience - a natural worry,
 given a picture on which the physical domain is causally closed, and
 on which experience is supplementary to the physical. The
 informational view allows us to understand how experience might have a
 subtle kind of causal relevance in virtue of its status as the
 intrinsic nature of the physical. This metaphysical speculation is
 probably best ignored for the purposes of developing a scientific
 theory, but in addressing some philosophical issues it is quite
 suggestive.

 IOW, he proposes  - with charming professional tentativeness - that
 experience is the intrinsic nature of the physical - i.e. in Quinean
 terms, everything is reducible to experience. This allows him to
 paraphrase the extrinsic physical account as 'pure causal flux' - i.e.
 the abstractable relational properties of what exists.  It is of
 course this abstractability or extrinsicality that makes it at the
 same time shareable and incomplete.  Completing the account - adding
 back the interpretation of the causal flux - then depends on *being*
 the 'instantiation' of the flux - i.e. the intrinsic properties in the
 specified relation.

 It would interest me to see how the foregoing squares with the
 criticisms you've recently made, and whether we can at least see
 exactly where the divergence is situated.

 David

1. It seems reasonable that relations must have relata. However,
relata
need not have a rich set of properties. You could build a physical
universe out
a single type of particle and various relations.

2. Someone's perceptual data are already encoded relationally in the
matter
of their brain, so if qualia are intrinisc properties of relata,
something needs to arrange
that they encode the same information, so some novel laws ar required
in addition to novel
properties,

3,. The Grain problem

Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-28 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 02:20, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:

  the door is opened to some grander metaphysical speculation
  concerning the nature of the world. For example, it is often noted
  that physics characterizes its basic entities only extrinsically, in
  terms of their relations to other entities, which are themselves
  characterized extrinsically, and so on. The intrinsic nature of
  physical entities is left aside. Some argue that no such intrinsic
  properties exist, but then one is left with a world that is pure
  causal flux (a pure flow of information) with no properties for the
  causation to relate.

 ?? Is momentum an intrinsic orextrinsicproperty of an electron?

Yes, very much extrinisic since it is actually momentum relative to
something else

What
 about spin?

Yes, again it has to be measured against  a magnetic field.

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-28 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 08:42, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 27 Aug 2009, at 19:21, Flammarion wrote:





  On 24 Aug, 16:23, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 22 Aug 2009, at 21:10, Brent Meeker wrote:

  But you see Brent, here you confirm that materialist are religious in
  the way they try to explain, or explain away the mind body problem. I
  can imagine that your consciousness supervene on something
  uncomputable in the universe. But we have not find anything
  uncomputable in the universe, except the quantum indeterminacy, but
  this is the kind of uncomputability predicted by the comp theory (and
  AUDA suggested it is exactly the uncomputable aspect of the universe
  predicted by comp).

  So you are postulating an unknown property of matter just to make the
  comp theory false. This is really a matter-of-the gaps (cf god-of-
  the
  gaps) use of matter.

  No uncomputable property is needed. If it is a fact that consc.
  supervenes
  directly on matter, then no immaterial machine or virtualisation can
  be conscious.

 OK.
 But to be honest I have no clue what matter can be in that setting,  
 nor what directly could possibly mean in consciousness supervenes  
 *directly* on matter.
 I think that you are saying or meaning that for a computation to have  
 consciousness, the computation needs to be implemented in a real  
 material reality, but that is the point which MGA makes  
 epistemologically inconsistant.

  That does not prove CTM false, but it does disprove the argument that
  if physics is computible, then the CTM is true

 We have both physics is computable entails my brain is computable  
 which entails I can say yes to the doctor, which entails CTM.

No we don't for the reasons given.

 And we have that physics is computable entails CTM is false (because  
 by UDA, CTM entails that physics cannot be entirely computable, and it  
 is an open problem if that non computability comes only from what is  
 contingent in the computational histories). The white rabbit can be  
 made *relatively* rare (in QM, or in comp) but can never disappear.

 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-28 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 02:27, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 Flammarion wrote:

  On 21 Aug, 21:01, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
  Flammarion wrote:

  Do you think that if you scanned my brain right down to the atomic
  level,
  you still wouldn't have captured all the information?
  That's an interesting question and one that I think relates to the
  importance of context.  A scan of your brain would capture all the
  information in the Shannon/Boltzman sense, i.e. it would determine which
  of the possible configurations and processes were realized.  However,
  those concerned about the hard problem, will point out that this
  misses the fact that the information represents or means something.
  To know the meaning of the information would require knowledge of the
  world in which the brain acts and perceives, including a lot of
  evolutionary history.  Image scanning the brain of an alien found  in a
  crash at Roswell.  Without knowledge of how he acts and the evolutionary
  history of his species it would be essentially impossible to guess the
  meaning of the patterns in his brain.  My point is that it is not just
  computation that is consciousness or cognition, but computation with
  meaning, which means within a certain context of action.

  But figuring out stored sensory information should be about the
  easiest part of the task. If you can trace a pathway from a red
  sensor to a storage unit, the information in the unit has to mean
  this is red.
  What is hard about the Hard Problem is *not* interpretation or
  context.

 I'm not so sure about that - maybe more is different applies. This
 is red is really a summary, an abstraction, of what the red sensor
 firing means to the alien.  To a human it's the color of blood and has
 connotations of violence, excitement, danger.  To an alien with green
 blood... from a planet with red seas...?  If you knew all the
 associations built up over a lifetime of memories and many lifetimes
 of evolution maybe the 'hard problem' would dissolve.

Not at all. That theory predicts that some entirely novel sensation--
one which
has not built
up any associations --should be easy to describe. But it isn;t. And in
fact
describing associations is a lot easier than describing the core
phenomenal feel.

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-28 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 09:50, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:
 On 28 Aug, 07:27, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:



  2009/8/27 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

   On 27 Aug, 08:54, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
   2009/8/26 David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com:

   This is because if consciousness is a computational process then it is
   independant of the (physical or ... virtual) implementation. If I
   perfom the computation on an abacus or within my head or with stones
   on the ground... it is the same (from the computation pov).

   And that's my problem with physicalism. How can it account for the
   independance of implementation if computations are not real ?

   Physcialism doesn't say that computations aren't real. It says
   real instances of computation are identical to physical processes.

  If everything is reduced to physical interaction then computations
  aren't real.

 That still doesn't follow. Water=H2O doesn't mean water is unreal.

  Also that doesn't answer how it account for the
  independance of implementation.

 A type of computation is an equivalence class of physical
 instances. They fall into the class by being susceptible
 to the same abstract definition, not by having the same extra phsyical
 property.
 This is no more mysterious than the fact that you can have quite a
 physcally
 varied class of cubic things. Shape is multiply realisable  too.

  As the computation is not primary, how
  2 different physical process could generate the same computation
  without abstract computations being the only thing that link the two
  processes having existence.

 You do need abstract computations, but you don't
 need Platonic computations. Not all abstracta
 are Platonic. Check out the difference between Platonic and
 Ariostotelean forms.

 How can you make sense of church-turing
  thesis if only realized computations make sense ?

 Non-Platonic bstracta can make sense. Platonism supplies reference,
 not sense.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-28 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 07:27, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/27 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:





  On 27 Aug, 08:54, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
  2009/8/26 David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com:

  This is because if consciousness is a computational process then it is
  independant of the (physical or ... virtual) implementation. If I
  perfom the computation on an abacus or within my head or with stones
  on the ground... it is the same (from the computation pov).

  And that's my problem with physicalism. How can it account for the
  independance of implementation if computations are not real ?

  Physcialism doesn't say that computations aren't real. It says
  real instances of computation are identical to physical processes.

 If everything is reduced to physical interaction then computations
 aren't real.

That still doesn't follow. Water=H2O doesn't mean water is unreal.

 Also that doesn't answer how it account for the
 independance of implementation.

A type of computation is an equivalence class of physical
instances. They fall into the class by being susceptible
to the same abstract definition, not by having the same extra phsyical
property.
This is no more mysterious than the fact that you can have quite a
physcally
varied class of cubic things. Shape is multiply realisable  too.

 As the computation is not primary, how
 2 different physical process could generate the same computation
 without abstract computations being the only thing that link the two
 processes having existence.

You do need abstract computations, but you don't
need Platonic computations. Not all abstracta
are Platonic. Check out the difference between Platonic and
Ariostotelean forms.

How can you make sense of church-turing
 thesis if only realized computations make sense ?

Non-Platonic bstracta can make sense. Platonism supplies reference,
not sense.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-28 Thread Flammarion



On 21 Aug, 20:49, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 21 Aug 2009, at 09:33, Flammarion wrote:





  On 20 Aug, 00:28, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 19 Aug 2009, at 22:21, Flammarion wrote:

  Where he says computation can happen without any physicial process
  at
  all. I don't see any evidence for that

  I am explaining this right now.

  Only Bruno thinks computation trancends matter.

  The notion of computation and computability have been discovered by
  Mathematicians working around the foundation crisis of math after the
  discovery by Cantor and others of paradoxes in set theory.

  The idea is that computation should be redefined as physical
  computation is a very recent one, and is due to people like David
  Deustch and Landauer. And it does not really work as such. Deutsch
  reconstruction of the Post-Church-Turing thesis is really a
  different thesis.

  Of course you can have theoretical
  truths about computation

  But show me something that has been computed by
  an immaterial computer.

 A Schmidhuberian computationalist would probably answer: look around
 you. But I have explained why this is not enough, and why a prori comp
 makes the observable reality not the output of one program (but a view
 from inside from all execution of all programs).

   I can only hope you will work on the UDA+MGA, and understand that
 non-theoretical truth have to be redefined as theoretical
 possibilities (consistencies) observed from inside (from some first
 person point of view).

There is no UD.

 Comp, or CTM, leads to a many types no token view of reality. Token
 are seen as such by being appearances from the point of view of an
 abstract subject coupled to an (infinity of) abstract computations.



  CTM *implies* materialism, and the MGA doesn't work.

  CTM is neutral on materialism, even if many materialist use
  incorrectly comp to put the mind body problem under the rug. UDA,
  including MGA, shows why this fails.

  What is in MGA which does not work?

  It's a reductio of the idea that mental states
  supervene on computational states.
  CTM must be cast as the claim
  that mental activity supervenes on computational
  activity.

 I agree. Consciousness is attached to computation (and not to
 computational states), even at the starting of the reasoning, and also
 when the physical supervenience is introduced in MGA for the reductio
 ad absurdum.
 Then, eventually, keeping CTM, and thus abandoning (weak) materialism,
 consciousness is related to, well not just a computation, but to an
 infinite sheaves of computations. Consciousness is a first person
 notion, and as such, is dependent on the first person uncertainty
 measure brought by the first person indeterminacy.
 This is why I take time to explain what is a computation, or a
 computational activity, in purely arithmetical terms. A computation is
 not just a sequence of computational states, it is a sequence of
 computational states related by at least one universal machine (and
 then an infinity of them, from the point of view of the conscious
 being, observably so when he/she looks below its substitution level).
 Classical physics become the study of our most probable computations,
 which emerge from the statistical interference of all computations
 going through my relevant states (the relevance being dependent of the
 observer's comp-substitution level).

  Thanks for quoting my sane2004 definition of comp, and showing that
  indeed platonism is not part of it.

  It is a version of Platonism

 The wording is not important.

Maybe you could flag the wording that we are supposed
to take serioulsy.

 The point is that in the assumption of
 CTM, (CT+ the theological act of faith),  I am using that version of
 platonism only, which is just the idea that classical logic can be
 applied to arithmetical sentences, and in the conclusion, only, we
 have to abandon weak materialism or CTM.

Nope. Assumptions about truth don't get you a UD which is capable of
simulating me. You need
a claim about existence. You argument is either based on Platonism or
invalid

  Just arithmetical realism without which CT has no meaning at all.

  The CT thesis requires some mathematical
  claims to be true. it doesn't require numbers to actually exist

 I have never asserted that numbers actually exist. Just that they
 exist in the sense of the usual interpretation of existential
 arithmetical statement are independent of me, you, or the existence or
 not of a material world.

There is no usual interpretation, it is disputed. Formalists don't
think
backeards-E has any existential implications at all

 Would the two cosmic branes never have collided, and the big bang
 never occurred, the Rieman hypothesis would still be atemporally and
 aspatially true or false.

Truth and falsehood don't buy you an immaterial computer simulating me
and eveything I see.

  Get the feeling you have change your mind on AR. You believe that a
  proposition

Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-28 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 12:53, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 28 Aug 2009, at 10:52, Flammarion wrote:





  On 28 Aug, 08:42, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 27 Aug 2009, at 19:21, Flammarion wrote:

  On 24 Aug, 16:23, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 22 Aug 2009, at 21:10, Brent Meeker wrote:

  But you see Brent, here you confirm that materialist are
  religious in
  the way they try to explain, or explain away the mind body
  problem. I
  can imagine that your consciousness supervene on something
  uncomputable in the universe. But we have not find anything
  uncomputable in the universe, except the quantum indeterminacy, but
  this is the kind of uncomputability predicted by the comp theory
  (and
  AUDA suggested it is exactly the uncomputable aspect of the
  universe
  predicted by comp).

  So you are postulating an unknown property of matter just to make
  the
  comp theory false. This is really a matter-of-the gaps (cf god-of-
  the
  gaps) use of matter.

  No uncomputable property is needed. If it is a fact that consc.
  supervenes
  directly on matter, then no immaterial machine or virtualisation can
  be conscious.

  OK.
  But to be honest I have no clue what matter can be in that setting,
  nor what directly could possibly mean in consciousness supervenes
  *directly* on matter.
  I think that you are saying or meaning that for a computation to have
  consciousness, the computation needs to be implemented in a real
  material reality, but that is the point which MGA makes
  epistemologically inconsistant.

  That does not prove CTM false, but it does disprove the argument
  that
  if physics is computible, then the CTM is true

  We have both physics is computable entails my brain is computable
  which entails I can say yes to the doctor, which entails CTM.

  No we don't for the reasons given.

 The reason above concerns immaterial machine. Not material one, like
 in comp alias CTM.
 (Then MGA proves that matter emerges from number relation, once we
 assume CTM, but this is not relevant).

 Are you really saying that if the laws of physics are computable, then
 we have to say no to the doctor?


No. The computability of physics does not entail either the truth or
the falsehood
of CTM

This seems to contradict many
 statements you have made in preceding posts.

 Bruno

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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-28 Thread Flammarion



On 22 Aug, 00:38, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 On 21 Aug, 19:04, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:



Explaining away qua reduction is nto the same as
explaining away qua elimination.

   Well, either way he's explaining away, as you yourself point out
   below.  But it's a false distinction, as I point out below.

 But also - just to dispose once and for all of this particular point -
 I want to be sure that you understand that I'm not arguing *for*
 eliminative materialism, except as devil's advocate (I'm sure you know
 this).  But one aspect of my recent discussions with Peter has been to
 bring to a focus the strict consequences of materialism, in precisely
 the honest way that you attribute to Dennett.  The trouble is, that
 Dennett, having eliminated the mind and hence the notorious 'problem',
 still cheerfully carries on deploying the same mind-dependent concepts
 as though nothing had happened!

The upshot of which is that he *hasn't* eliminated the mind
(with the possible exception of qualia)
in the sense of Eliminative Materialism, only reduced it in the
sense of Reductive materialism.

   What do you mean with the possible exception of qualia!  The whole
   point is that if you think you can leave qualitative experience out of
   the account you're an eliminativist.  Qualia are precisely what is
   being eliminated.

  He is a selective eliminativist. He is not being
  inconsistent. Having eiminated qualia, he deosn;t
  continue to talk about them. He does continue to talk
  about memory, thought and perception, but then he
  hasn't eilminated them.

 In other words, his position is
 inconsistent and incoherent.  It's dualism for free!

In other words, his position isn't what you have decided it is.

   What do you mean?  Are you saying he's an eliminativist or a crypto-
   dualist?  Or are you implying that (possibly!) non-qualitative
   reductive materialism is something different than either of these?

  he is eliminativist about qualia and reductionist about everything
  else.

 In that case he's an eliminativist about consciousness..




 So, in this context, let me try to understand your remark: with or
 without assuming PM (primitive matter) there is an mathematical notion
 of computation and of computability.  I would say - per Dennett, but
 understood *consistently* - that under the assumption that there is
 *only* primitive matter (i.e. material monism) - there strictly can be
 no appeal to such a notion as computation, because mathematics itself
 is eliminable per Qine.

No. Paraphrase indicates identity. Water can be paraphrased
as H2O. That means water is identical to H2O. not that
water does not and cannot exist. Water is only eliminated
as *fundamental* (eg. the way the Greeks thought of it).
EliminativISM is a much stronger claim, that the concept
eliminated should never subsequently be used even as
a place-holder or shrothand

   Yes, so following your recipe above, a given computation can be
   paraphrased as a specific physical process.  This means that this
   computation is identical to that physical process.  'Computation' is
   therefore eliminated as something fundamental (in the Greek sense).
   Consequently, this leaves CTM+PM with 'computation' as a mere
   shorthand for an appeal to the fundamental physical processes, or
   alternatively with no appeal to anything fundamental whatsoever.

  Yes, yes, and yes. Why would that be a problem?

 Well, if now you think there's no problem, perhaps you'd like to
 reconsider what you meant by no above.  I try my best to respond to
 your comments, but it seems to me that you react as though you had
 never made them.

I mean it is false that:
Under the assumption that there is
*only* primitive matter (i.e. material monism) - there strictly can be
no appeal to such a notion as computation,


Because instances of compuitation are not eleiminated, they are
*identified*
with physical processes.

   Further, I can't possibly agree with your contention that
   'eliminativism' is any other or stronger claim than this.

  Uh-huh. And where are you getting your information
  on eliminativism from?

  This would
   be absurd, as well as unnecessary, because it would mean that we would
   be struck dumb.

  Only if we eliminated everything,. and only if we did not have
  substitute theory. Elimiativists think terms like thought will
  simply be abandoned as part of a failed theory,
  (like phlosgiston), rather than continuing as convenient
  but not entirely accurate shorthand. But they don't expect
  this to happen until the replacement theories are
  perfected. So they don't expect to be struck dumb.

 In that case they're 'replacementists' rather than 'eliminativists',
 wouldn't you say?

It doesn't help to re-arrange the vocabulary

They just want to replace one shorthand with
 another

Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-28 Thread Flammarion



On 25 Aug, 08:22, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 19 Aug 2009, at 22:38, Flammarion wrote:



  That is false. You are tacitly assuming that PM has to be argued
  with the full force of necessity --

  I don't remember. I don't find trace of what makes you think so.
  Where?

  Well, if it;s tacit you wouldn't find  a trace.

 I wake up this morning realizing this was not your usual statement
 that I am implicitly assuming what I am proving.

 So actually you may be right, I do believe that PM has to be argued.

The key phrase is:
with the full force of necessity

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-28 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 13:51, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:


 Is functionalism monism, property dualism, or might it even be a form
 of substance dualism?

Monism
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-29 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 17:07, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 Flammarion wrote:

  On 28 Aug, 02:27, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
  Flammarion wrote:

  On 21 Aug, 21:01, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
  Flammarion wrote:
  Do you think that if you scanned my brain right down to the atomic
  level,
  you still wouldn't have captured all the information?
  That's an interesting question and one that I think relates to the
  importance of context.  A scan of your brain would capture all the
  information in the Shannon/Boltzman sense, i.e. it would determine which
  of the possible configurations and processes were realized.  However,
  those concerned about the hard problem, will point out that this
  misses the fact that the information represents or means something.
  To know the meaning of the information would require knowledge of the
  world in which the brain acts and perceives, including a lot of
  evolutionary history.  Image scanning the brain of an alien found  in a
  crash at Roswell.  Without knowledge of how he acts and the evolutionary
  history of his species it would be essentially impossible to guess the
  meaning of the patterns in his brain.  My point is that it is not just
  computation that is consciousness or cognition, but computation with
  meaning, which means within a certain context of action.
  But figuring out stored sensory information should be about the
  easiest part of the task. If you can trace a pathway from a red
  sensor to a storage unit, the information in the unit has to mean
  this is red.
  What is hard about the Hard Problem is *not* interpretation or
  context.
  I'm not so sure about that - maybe more is different applies. This
  is red is really a summary, an abstraction, of what the red sensor
  firing means to the alien.  To a human it's the color of blood and has
  connotations of violence, excitement, danger.  To an alien with green
  blood... from a planet with red seas...?  If you knew all the
  associations built up over a lifetime of memories and many lifetimes
  of evolution maybe the 'hard problem' would dissolve.

  Not at all. That theory predicts that some entirely novel sensation--
  one which
  has not built
  up any associations --should be easy to describe. But it isn;t. And in
  fact
  describing associations is a lot easier than describing the core
  phenomenal feel.

 Does that theory refer to more-is-different?  ISTM that
 more-is-different implies exactly what you point out.  It's easier to
 describe a sensation that has lots of associations because describe it
 in terms of the associations; whereas a completely novel sensation is
 impossible describe.

if that is so, it negates the claim that the HP is nothing more than
the difficulty of describing meanings and associations
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-29 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 18:02, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 28 Aug 2009, at 17:58, Brent Meeker wrote:

 If the physical laws are turing emulable, then whatever is responsible
 for my consciousness can be Turing emulable at some level (I assume
 some form of naturalism/materialism or computationalism).OK? If not,
 your brain (generalized or not) does not obeys to the laws of physics.

That may buy you no more than mere simulation. The CTM is a
stronger claim than the computability of physics. it means that you
will
get actual implementation (strong AI) and not just simulation (weak
AI)

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-31 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 18:15, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/28 Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com:





  Quentin Anciaux wrote:
  2009/8/27 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  On 27 Aug, 08:54, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
  2009/8/26 David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com:
  This is because if consciousness is a computational process then it is
  independant of the (physical or ... virtual) implementation. If I
  perfom the computation on an abacus or within my head or with stones
  on the ground... it is the same (from the computation pov).

  And that's my problem with physicalism. How can it account for the
  independance of implementation if computations are not real ?
  Physcialism doesn't say that computations aren't real. It says
  real instances of computation are identical to physical processes.

  If everything is reduced to physical interaction then computations
  aren't real. Also that doesn't answer how it account for the
  independance of implementation. As the computation is not primary, how
  2 different physical process could generate the same computation
  without abstract computations being the only thing that link the two
  processes having existence. How can you make sense of church-turing
  thesis if only realized computations make sense ?

  Regards,
  Quentin

  Try substituting lengths for computations.  Are lengths primary
  because the same length can occur in different physical objects?

  Brent

 Why would I ? It's not the same thing at all... You could have said
 substitute by 'red'... there are multiple physical red object.

And there are multiple computaitons..

 The thing is you can come up with an infinity of physical (possible)
 realisation for a given computation.

And and infinity of red objects.

 So the question is what is
 linking the computation to the physical realisation if not the
 abstract rules (which don't exists with physicalism, because there
 exists only realized computations... no abstract thing) ?

Physicalism doesn't reject abstract entities, it rejects immaterial
entities.
Abstracta are arrived at by ignoring irrelevant features of individual
objects.
The die and the sugar cube both fall under cubic once their material
constitution is ignored

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-31 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 22:47, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/28 Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com:





  Quentin Anciaux wrote:
  2009/8/28 Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com:
  Quentin Anciaux wrote:
  2009/8/27 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  On 27 Aug, 08:54, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
  2009/8/26 David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com:
  This is because if consciousness is a computational process then it is
  independant of the (physical or ... virtual) implementation. If I
  perfom the computation on an abacus or within my head or with stones
  on the ground... it is the same (from the computation pov).

  And that's my problem with physicalism. How can it account for the
  independance of implementation if computations are not real ?
  Physcialism doesn't say that computations aren't real. It says
  real instances of computation are identical to physical processes.
  If everything is reduced to physical interaction then computations
  aren't real. Also that doesn't answer how it account for the
  independance of implementation. As the computation is not primary, how
  2 different physical process could generate the same computation
  without abstract computations being the only thing that link the two
  processes having existence. How can you make sense of church-turing
  thesis if only realized computations make sense ?

  Regards,
  Quentin
  Try substituting lengths for computations.  Are lengths primary
  because the same length can occur in different physical objects?

  Brent

  Why would I ? It's not the same thing at all... You could have said
  substitute by 'red'... there are multiple physical red object.

  The thing is you can come up with an infinity of physical (possible)
  realisation for a given computation. So the question is what is
  linking the computation to the physical realisation if not the
  abstract rules (which don't exists with physicalism, because there
  exists only realized computations... no abstract thing) ?

  Lengths are abstract to, but we don't take them to be fundamental.
  Your reasoning is Platonism; you end up reifying every abstraction
  simply because they are common to multiple realizations.

  Brent

 I still disagree (about your wording game)... computation is not a
 property of a thing like a length is, it's a process.

That's a difference that doesn't make a difference
There are any number of examples of multiply instantiable processes---
photosynthesis, digestion
and so on.

 And yes I assume abstract rules simply exists... that's what allows me
 to build concrete realisation of such computation.

People who don't believe in the immaterial existence of abstract rules
can do that too.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-31 Thread Flammarion



On 30 Aug, 07:54, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 29 Aug 2009, at 20:34, Flammarion wrote:





  On 28 Aug, 18:02, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 28 Aug 2009, at 17:58, Brent Meeker wrote:

  If the physical laws are turing emulable, then whatever is  
  responsible
  for my consciousness can be Turing emulable at some level (I assume
  some form of naturalism/materialism or computationalism).OK? If not,
  your brain (generalized or not) does not obeys to the laws of  
  physics.

  That may buy you no more than mere simulation. The CTM is a
  stronger claim than the computability of physics. it means that you
  will
  get actual implementation (strong AI) and not just simulation (weak
  AI)

 In that sense, I am OK here. Actually strong AI is even weaker than  
 CTM.

Be that as it may, neither is directly implied by the computability of
physics

My reconstitution can believe wrongly that he is me, yet  
 conscious. But I was assuming some naturalism here, and if the  
 physical laws are computable, and I still say no to the doctor, then  
 my identity is no more defined by the computation, but by the actual  
 matter which constitutes me,

That is one reason for saying no. Another is that your identity *is*
given
by the computation (in line with the idea that PM is propertiless),
and that
the computation needs to run on the metal (at 0 levelsof
virtualisation)
to be genuinely conscious and not just an ersatz functional
equivalent.

and then comp (CTM) is no more correct  
 (although strong AI could still be correct).

 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-31 Thread Flammarion



On 30 Aug, 22:21, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/28 Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com:

  Ok, so you want to solve the hard problem right at the beginning by
  taking conscious thoughts as the basic elements of your ontology.

 No I don't - that's why I said I'd rather not use the word
 consciousness.  What I have in mind at this point in the argument is a
 primitive, not an elaborated, notion - like PM vis-a-vis materialism,
 or AR vis-a-vis comp.

Then it is going to meet similar objections: we do not introspect a
featureless Primary Consciousness, we introspect a kaleidoscope of
thoughts sensations and moods.

 It's more an attempt to characterise our
 metaphysical *situation*: i.e. the intuition that it is enduring,
 immediate, self-referential and self-relative.   Actually, reflecting
 on exchanges with Bruno, I wonder if one might well say that this
 position is globally solipsistic.

That reads like a contradiction in terms to me

Just as we intuit the first person
 as a stubbornly solipsistic,

does that include the 99.99% of people who intuit that
solipsism is crazy?

self-referential, self-reflecting
 attractor in an otherwise unconscious flux, we can intuit the
 integration of all such perspectives as a truly global solipsism.

?

 The attribution of 'conscious' and 'unconscious' can then be seen
 relative to perspective.

But if everything is conscious, then a lot of the attributions
are false

 The solipsism is justified in each
 perspectives' assessment of itself as uniquely conscious, simply
 because this is true relative to its own self-reflection; what lies
 behind the mirror's surface is no longer self but 'other' (or IOW
 one's generalised 'unconscious').

Crikey!

Look,  if there is more than one consciousness then solipsism
is false, and it is therefore unjustified.

But the saving grace is that this
 can be intuited as equally true for all other perspectives.




Aside
 from this though, there is more to be said on the subject of
 instantiation, which is what I think Chalmers is really driving at -
 see below.

  But you could suppose that all
  possible (logically consistent) monads exist and then try to solve the
  white rabbit problem, why do some things happen and others don't (at
  least apparently).

 I don't of course have any special insight here, other than the
 obvious comment that there appear to be two approaches: contingent and
 everythingist, each with its characteristic problems.  We can only
 hope that there may in the end be an empirical resolution to this.

  Once a fundamental link between information and experience is on the
  table,
  I don't know what that means.

 I'm afraid I must refer you to the original:

 http://consc.net/papers/facing.html

  ?? Is momentum an intrinsic or extrinsic property of an electron? What
  about spin? I'm not sure this 'extrinsic'/'intrinsic' distinction means
  anything.

 Well, you must be the judge.  Either it doesn't mean anything, or it
 means everything.  Of course words are not in themselves realities.
 Whatever exists presumably does not possess properties whether
 extrinsic or intrinsic.

Why on earth not?

 But we may take 'intrinsic' as a bare
 solipsistic self-reference,

That isn't even remotely what chalmers means.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intrinsic_and_extrinsic_properties_(philosophy)

and 'extrinsic' to refer to any further
 conceptual attribution whatsoever.   Under this characterisation, any
 description or formulation of spin is an extrinsic reference, but the
 implied solipsistic self-reference is intrinsic.  In the philosophic
 tradition, I suppose intrinsic could also be seen - more or less - as
 referring to Kant's ding an sich selbst, as long as this is
 understood as encompassing appearance within its ambit.

It just mean non-relational.

 When Chalmers characterises 'experiential properties' as intrinsic, I
 would translate this as a claim about instantiation, and indirectly
 about substitution level.  What he's saying essentially is that the
 fundamental 'entities' of physics, characterised purely extrinsically,
 are content-less placeholders for algebraic relationships.  For such
 extrinsically-defined relata to be instantiated solipsistically

???

 necessitates translation through the filter of an appropriate theory
 into intrinsic differentiables (e.g. hypothesised as 'number' in the
 case of AR).  The intrinsicality points to the fact that we lack the
 means to characterise such differentiables inter-subjectively, except
 ostensively.



No, he's just talking about properties of individuals that
are in fact entirely proper to those individuals and
not a realtion to something else.

  They are the domain of the true but not provable
 precisely in that they *constitute* a level of instantiation.  What
 can be abstracted from that level is restricted to its extrinsic
 relationships, but these can be re-instantiated, and consequently
 facsimiles of the original can 

Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-31 Thread Flammarion



On 31 Aug, 00:21, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/28 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  1. It seems reasonable that relations must have relata. However,
  relata
  need not have a rich set of properties. You could build a physical
  universe out
  a single type of particle and various relations.

 What we're trying to get to here, remember, is *many* intrinsically
 differentiable forms of instantiation.  

I thought we were trying to get at an analysis of Chalmers's theory.

I can't make sense of the above (instantions of what?)

Hence for what you say to meet
 the case (which I would certainly not reject out of hand), any unique
 intrinsic nature you envisage for the particle would need to be
 capable of emergence, purely in virtue of combination in terms of its
 various relations, into many such intrinsically differentiable forms.

forms of what?

 Does that seem feasible on this basis?

Let's work on comprehensible for the time being...

  2. Someone's perceptual data are already encoded relationally in the
  matter
  of their brain, so if qualia are intrinisc properties of relata,
  something needs to arrange
  that they encode the same information, so some novel laws ar required
  in addition to novel
  properties,

 I'm not sure if I follow you.  Nothing is 'already' encoded.

Yes it is. That is fact, it is known from fMRI technology.

 As I
 said to Brent, we mustn't be misled into supposing that the state of
 affairs to which we refer literally 'possesses properties'.  

You have said it , but you haven't said why. That there are some sorts
of things with some sorts of properties is about the least contentious
claim I can think of.


As I see
 it, the 'perceptual data' consist in;

 1) An instantiation or substitution level which is self-referentially
 organised in terms of intrinsic differentiables in intrinsic relation.

I don't have the faintest idea what that means. By perceptual data, I
mean
detectable changes in neurological activity, the kind of thing
neuroscientists
study.

  This is the qualitative 'causal level' and as such exists independent
 of any extrinsic characterisation.  It makes no reference outside of
 itself.
 2) Second-order 'extrinsic' accounts abstracted from and referring to
 level (1).  These accounts are themselves also instantiated at level
 (1).

 In terms of the above, the 'laws' are simply whatever regularities are
 abstractable at the level of the extrinsic account (2).  The
 instantiation level is not in itself abstractable, but can be
 nonetheless be referred to ostensively via the exchange of relational
 data.  As Chalmers implies, the 'subtle causal effect'(!) of the
 instantiation is to provide a substrate of realisation without which
 the extrinsic account lacks any referent.  Consequently any
 characterisation of level (2) accounts as independently 'causally
 closed' fundamentally mistakes the direction of inference.



  3,. The Grain problem

 I really can't fathom why anybody thinks that there is a grain
 problem.  ISTM that this is taking full-scale reflective consciousness
 altogether too much for granted.  One might as well complain that
 there should be a grain problem with respect to matter - after all,
 why isn't the brain just explicable at the level of molecules, or
 atoms.

It is.

  I think, to use Chalmers' notorious terminology, that the
 grain problem is susceptible to 'easy' solution.  For example - and I
 emphasise that this is merely suggestive - conscious perception as we
 know it provides us with an experience of time which is utterly at
 odds with either flux or block temporal models - i.e. the notions that
 time at the 'objective' level is either utterly ephemeral or
 enduringly spatial.  

That we experience a specious present rather than an infinitely
thin time-slice is very easily explained by data storage, which is
itself
easily explained itself as a by product of data-transmission
latencies.

I agree there is a problem with the block model.

I have no idea what this has to do with the GP

 On the basis of this we might well suppose that
 any experience even approximating to subjective consciousness is very
 far from supervening directly on some process naively considered as a
 simple traverse 'through time'.

But the claim that qualia per se are the intrisic properties of
fundamental particles is a claim that cosnc. or that aspect of consc.
*does* supervene directly on the fine-grained physical structure. You
are not *resolving* the problem, you are just saying the initial claim
is
false.

 We should instead perhaps envision a) highly-evolved, multi-level,
 subject-relative processes of abstraction, synthesis and editing with
 b) high dependence on successions of (very) short-term memory-based
 gestalts that instantiate the qualitative temporal content of the
 'specious present', c) whose adaptive function - to speak
 teleologically - is to mediate sophisticated discrimination of, and
 response to, co-evolving

Re: Against Physics

2009-08-31 Thread Flammarion



On 9 Aug, 06:55, Rex Allen rexallen...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Sun, Aug 9, 2009 at 1:26 AM, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:

  If you suffer epileptic seizures seeing a neurosurgeon may offer 
  considerable advantage.

 If that's what the future held for me, then that's exactly what I
 would do.   Otherwise, I wouldn't do that, since it wouldn't be in my
 future.


If you can't see into the future, you are going to have to
make your mind up in the present
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Re: Against Physics

2009-08-31 Thread Flammarion



On 31 Aug, 19:15, Rex Allen rexallen...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Mon, Aug 31, 2009 at 1:58 PM, Flammarionpeterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  On 9 Aug, 06:55, Rex Allen rexallen...@gmail.com wrote:
  On Sun, Aug 9, 2009 at 1:26 AM, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com 
  wrote:

   If you suffer epileptic seizures seeing a neurosurgeon may offer 
   considerable advantage.

  If that's what the future held for me, then that's exactly what I
  would do.   Otherwise, I wouldn't do that, since it wouldn't be in my
  future.

  If you can't see into the future, you are going to have to
  make your mind up in the present

 Assuming physicalism, my brain will make my mind up for me,

Asssuming physcialism, your brain is you and not some external force
pulling your strings

 based on
 the initial conditions of the universe plus the laws of physics.
 Given those two things, my choice is a forgone conclusion.



Assuming the laws of the universe are deterministic

 Assuming UDA/platonism...the same holds true.  My experience of
 choosing exists eternally amongst the infinities of computational
 relations between all the numbers.

 Either way, there is only the epiphenomenal experience of making my
 mind up...not the actuality of doing so.
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-31 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 16:08, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 28 Aug 2009, at 14:46, Flammarion wrote:





  On 22 Aug, 08:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 21 Aug 2009, at 10:28, Flammarion wrote:

  1. Something that ontologically exists can only be caused or  
  generated
  by something else that does
  2. I ontologically exist
  3. According to you, I am generated by the UD
  4. Therefore the UD must ontologically exist.

  Step 4 is really step 0 which I have worked backwards
  to here

   5. But the UD exists only mathematically.

  Thus, ontological existence = mathematical existence.

  There is no usual one, since there is no one agreed ontology
  of mathematics.

  For sets and functions, you may be right. For numbers, there is a
  general mathematical agreement.

  No there isn't.

 What is the disagreement?

The age old debate about whether numbers exist

  There may be no philosophical
  argument, but this is not relevant to undersatnd the non  
  philosophical
  reasoning.

  Ontology is philosophy. You can't settle ontological quesitons
  with mathematical proofs.

 Philosophy, or theology. OK. But comp is an assumption in cognitive-
 science/philosophy/theology.

No. *CTM* is. Comp* is your own fusion of CTM with
Platonism

 It is an assumption that a form of  
 reincarnation is possible.

 This is not pure mathematics. UDA belongs  
 to the intersection of cognitive and physic science. UDA is not purely  
 mathematical.

It is not going anywhere without some ontological
assumptions either. since it has an ontological conclusion.

  You are aware. are you not, that philosophers
  and mathematicians are still writing books and papers attacking
  and defending Platonism and other approaches?

  Platonism is used by both philosopher and mathematician as something
  far more general than arithmetical realism, on which all
  mathematicians agree.

  I am not concerned with argument about how many pixies exist.

 So a doubt about the existence of a large cardinal in set theory rise  
 a doubt about the existence of seven?

No. A doubt about the ontological existence of seven leads
to a doubt about the rest.

 I have use arithmetical realism, because I have never met any  
 difficulty, among mathematicians, physicians and computer scientist.  
 Nor even with philosophers, except some which just dodge the issues of  
 showing what they miss in the argument.

Hmm. Well, you would say that, wouldn't you.

 My work has been indeed rejected in Brussels, by philsophers. But it  
 has been defended a s a PhD thesis by a jury with mathematician,  
 computer scientist, physician (yes, not physicist, but doctor!).

But it is a philosophical thesis, since its conclusion is the nature
of existence.

  The point remains: there *is* a debate so there is *not* a standard
  ontology.

  It is believed explcitly by many physicists too,
  like David Deutsch, Roger Penrose, and those who use math in physics.

  I never said no-on beliieves Platonism. I said some
  people belive other things. Therefore it is contentious,
  therefore it is needs jsutification.

 It is more efficacious to see if the consequence of comp, believed by  
 many, are verified by nature.


It's the consequences of CTM+Platonism

  By comp, the  ontic
  theory of everything is shown to be any theory in which I can
  represent the computable function. The very weak Robinson  
  Arithmetic
  is already enough.

  I am not interested in haggling over which pixies exist.

  This may be the root of your problem.

  comp = CTM.

  It clearly isn't by the defintiion you gave in
  your SANE paper.

  All right. As I said: comp is CTM + 2 + 2 =  4.

  Nope, mere truth does not buy the immaterial existence of a UD

 But from 2+2 = 4 and  CT, you can derive the existence of UD.

Only the mathematical existence.

  Classical logic is just a formal rule.

  It depends on the realm in which you apply classical logic. In
  computer science people admit that a running program will either  
  halt,
  or not halt, even in case we don't know. This is a non formal use of
  classical logic.

  It still does not demonstrate the immaterial existence of computers
  no-one has built.

 No one has ever build the prime numbers.

No. They were not built. they did not spontaneously spring
into being, they do not exist at all.

  Bivalence is not Platonism

  Exactly. This is one more reason to distinguish carefully
  arithmetical realism (bivalence in the realm of numbers), and
  Platonism (something huge in philosophy and theology).

  Even more reason to distinguish between AR qua truth and AR qua
  existence.

 Yes, and I use only AR qua truth.

Then you cannot come to any valid conclusion about my existence.

 I may ask you what are your evidence for a primary matter, or for your  
 notion of AR qua physical existence.

You dismiss matterial existence assuming Platonic existence

I dismiss Platonic existene assuming material existence.

I may

Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-08-31 Thread Flammarion



On 28 Aug, 15:25, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 28 Aug 2009, at 13:47, Flammarion wrote:



  On 21 Aug, 20:49, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 21 Aug 2009, at 09:33, Flammarion wrote:

   I can only hope you will work on the UDA+MGA, and understand that
  non-theoretical truth have to be redefined as theoretical
  possibilities (consistencies) observed from inside (from some first
  person point of view).

  There is no UD.

 You are meaning no physical UD. I don't need a physical UD in the
 reasoning.

I mean no existent UD, material or immaterial

  Thanks for quoting my sane2004 definition of comp, and showing that
  indeed platonism is not part of it.

  It is a version of Platonism

  The wording is not important.

  Maybe you could flag the wording that we are supposed
  to take serioulsy.

 I have explained to you why it is preferable to avoid the term
 Platonism for the belief that classical logic can be applied in
 arithmetic

I think the term Arithmetical Realism should be avoided when it is not
clear whether it is a claim about truth or about existence.

. Even mathematicians does not call that Platonism, which
 they use for the general idea that classical logic applies to a much
 larger part of math.  Arithmetical realism is better: it is the belief
 that the truth of arithmetical sentence exists independently of any
 means (humans, theories, machines, universes, ...) to study them.



  The point is that in the assumption of
  CTM, (CT+ the theological act of faith),  I am using that version of
  platonism only, which is just the idea that classical logic can be
  applied to arithmetical sentences, and in the conclusion, only, we
  have to abandon weak materialism or CTM.

  Nope. Assumptions about truth don't get you a UD which is capable of
  simulating me. You need
  a claim about existence.

 You told me this before, and I did explain that I am use the truth of
 the existential statement in arithmetic, as my unique claim about
 existence.

And I put forward the counterargument that you can have
true statements about existence, where the existence in question
is not literal ontological existence. You need to argue that backwards-
E
means RITSIAR, and not just existence in some fictional or formal
structure.

  You argument is either based on Platonism or
  invalid

 Yes, it based on Turing theorem, which with CT can be sump up by
 universal digital machines exist.



  Just arithmetical realism without which CT has no meaning at all.

  The CT thesis requires some mathematical
  claims to be true. it doesn't require numbers to actually exist

  I have never asserted that numbers actually exist. Just that they
  exist in the sense of the usual interpretation of existential
  arithmetical statement are independent of me, you, or the existence
  or
  not of a material world.

  There is no usual interpretation, it is disputed.

 For set theoretical realism. Not for the natural numbers.

Yes, for natural numbers. Even the existence of the number
one is disputed among philosophers

 I mean
 nobody, except you and ultrafinitist, doubt about the mathematical
 existence of natural numbers. They can doubt about deeper existence of
 those numbers, but I am not using this. Are you criticizing all
 theories using natural numbers (from economy to physics)?.

As I have pointed out endlessly, I think the standard
backwads-E statements of arithmetic are *true* , I just don't think
backwards-E *means* ontological existence.

  Formalists don't
  think
  backeards-E has any existential implications at all

 Formalist does not believe in primary matter either.

I think most of them do. That claim requires some support
at least.

 And they do
 believe in formal systems,

which *doesn't* mean immaterial systems. Formal systems exist
in mathematician's brain, books, and blackboards for
materialists+formalists.

which have sense only through naïve
 arithmetic. This dodge the issue, nevertheless, because you can add
 formal to all existential quantifier in the reasoning without
 changing the conclusion: formal physics has to be reduced to formal
 number theory.

It does change the conclusions. If the UD does not exist
immaterially, or materially, it does not exist, and therefore I and
physics
are not being simulated on it. You cannot valldly derive an
existential
conclusion without making existential assumptions.

  Would the two cosmic branes never have collided, and the big bang
  never occurred, the Rieman hypothesis would still be atemporally and
  aspatially true or false.

  Truth and falsehood don't buy you an immaterial computer simulating me
  and eveything I see.

 Fortunately numbers and math are still free. If CTM is correct, you
 are emulated infinitely often in the UD*. It exists (mathematically)
 like PI and square-root of two.

Which  is to say, it does not really exist at all, and is merely
said to exist in a formal game.

  Get the feeling you have change your mind

Re: Dreaming On

2009-08-31 Thread Flammarion



On 31 Aug, 17:57, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/31 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  If the lower level is discarded, the qualia aren't there. So where
  are they?

 Since you find this mode of thought so uncongenial, let's focus on
 this single issue for now.  I don't want to say that lower levels are
 completely discarded, since that of course would not meet the case.
 I'm saying that they are qualitatively discarded *at their own level*
 (i.e. 'forgotten') though still contributive to levels constructed in
 terms of them.  What I'm trying to steer you towards is that
 postulating either brute qualitative 'consciousness' or brute
 qualitative 'unconsciousness' gets us nowhere, and for the same
 reason: ex nihilo nihil fit, and hence on this basis either everything
 is conscious or nothing can be.  Rather I'm suggesting that we wonder
 about what could be 'memorable' (or not) *in context*.  In this way we
 could start to think about how contexts could emerge in terms of which
 specific contents could be retained or discarded.  I think that a
 little introspection shows that what is not remembered in context is
 as good as unconscious.

 David

That says nothing about qualia at all.

Do you think Chalmers suggestion that qualia are intrinsic properties
of fundamental particles is feasible or not?



  On 31 Aug, 00:21, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
  2009/8/28 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

   1. It seems reasonable that relations must have relata. However,
   relata
   need not have a rich set of properties. You could build a physical
   universe out
   a single type of particle and various relations.

  What we're trying to get to here, remember, is *many* intrinsically
  differentiable forms of instantiation.

  I thought we were trying to get at an analysis of Chalmers's theory.

  I can't make sense of the above (instantions of what?)

 Hence for what you say to meet
  the case (which I would certainly not reject out of hand), any unique
  intrinsic nature you envisage for the particle would need to be
  capable of emergence, purely in virtue of combination in terms of its
  various relations, into many such intrinsically differentiable forms.

  forms of what?

  Does that seem feasible on this basis?

  Let's work on comprehensible for the time being...

   2. Someone's perceptual data are already encoded relationally in the
   matter
   of their brain, so if qualia are intrinisc properties of relata,
   something needs to arrange
   that they encode the same information, so some novel laws ar required
   in addition to novel
   properties,

  I'm not sure if I follow you.  Nothing is 'already' encoded.

  Yes it is. That is fact, it is known from fMRI technology.

  As I
  said to Brent, we mustn't be misled into supposing that the state of
  affairs to which we refer literally 'possesses properties'.

  You have said it , but you haven't said why. That there are some sorts
  of things with some sorts of properties is about the least contentious
  claim I can think of.

 As I see
  it, the 'perceptual data' consist in;

  1) An instantiation or substitution level which is self-referentially
  organised in terms of intrinsic differentiables in intrinsic relation.

  I don't have the faintest idea what that means. By perceptual data, I
  mean
  detectable changes in neurological activity, the kind of thing
  neuroscientists
  study.

   This is the qualitative 'causal level' and as such exists independent
  of any extrinsic characterisation.  It makes no reference outside of
  itself.
  2) Second-order 'extrinsic' accounts abstracted from and referring to
  level (1).  These accounts are themselves also instantiated at level
  (1).

  In terms of the above, the 'laws' are simply whatever regularities are
  abstractable at the level of the extrinsic account (2).  The
  instantiation level is not in itself abstractable, but can be
  nonetheless be referred to ostensively via the exchange of relational
  data.  As Chalmers implies, the 'subtle causal effect'(!) of the
  instantiation is to provide a substrate of realisation without which
  the extrinsic account lacks any referent.  Consequently any
  characterisation of level (2) accounts as independently 'causally
  closed' fundamentally mistakes the direction of inference.

   3,. The Grain problem

  I really can't fathom why anybody thinks that there is a grain
  problem.  ISTM that this is taking full-scale reflective consciousness
  altogether too much for granted.  One might as well complain that
  there should be a grain problem with respect to matter - after all,
  why isn't the brain just explicable at the level of molecules, or
  atoms.

  It is.

   I think, to use Chalmers' notorious terminology, that the
  grain problem is susceptible to 'easy' solution.  For example - and I
  emphasise that this is merely suggestive - conscious perception as we
  know it provides us with an experience of time which

Re: Against Physics

2009-08-31 Thread Flammarion



On 11 Aug, 16:38, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/11 Rex Allen rexallen...@gmail.com:

 Standard physicalism, on the other hand, by banishing self-access from
 its fundamental notions of causal adequacy (though arrogating the
 right to whisk a mysteriously powerless ghost of it back later by
 sleight of intuition) is clearly false (incomplete is the more politic
 term).  


Why can't self-access be existent but non-fundamental?

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 01:25, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/31 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

 Peter, surely you must see that in saying abstracta are arrived at by
 ignoring irrelevant features of individual objects you are simply
 agreeing with Quentin that if everything is reduced to physical
 interaction then computations aren't real.  

The instances are real, the kind is not.

His argument clearly
 shows that by not real he means that under PM there is no final
 appeal to some 'abstract causal structure' beyond the physical.

Who needs it? It certainly isn't needed for anything in Computer
Science

 But
 since I've never detected anything of this sort in your own views,
 what precisely are you disputing?  No coherent causal account in terms
 of PM is at liberty to ignore irrelevant features in perpetuity.

Who says it does?

 The deal with PM is that, though such abstracted schemata are indeed
 borrowed promiscuously, such loans are made on the strict
 understanding of their being ultimately repayable in fully reduced
 physical coin.

Every instance is 100% physical. Abstraction is a process
performed by minds which are then cashed out as brains.

 Otherwise ignoring their material constitution is
 tantamount to ignoring their existence.

It is not ingnored when dealing with the instance/token,
only when dealing with the class/type

 Consequently, CTM in the context of PM is simply not a *physical*
 explanation - in fact, it treats PM as *irrelevant* to the attribution
 of consciousness.

That doesn't remotely follow from anything you have said.

 What it would take to make it a physical
 explanation would be a method of showing exactly how each specific
 instantiation of a putatively invariant computational consciousness is
 separately reducible to a justified physical causal account of
 consciousness.

Huh? The whole point of CTM is that physical details are unnecessary
to explain consciousness beyond their ability to implement the right
software.
Hence it doesn't matter what a person had fro breakfast or what colour
an AI's casing is.

 But this is infeasible for two reasons.  Firstly CMT
 under PM is a brute apriori assumption that makes no direct reference
 to physical causality, and hence eludes any justification in terms of
 it.  

That's a non-sequitur. Just about any claim has an implicit
background structure. CTM can rest on a standard account of how
computers work physically. That is just engineering and not
really the same are if concern. not explicitly mentioning
does not mean inexplicable in terms of

Secondly, it is precisely this non-physical postulate of CMT that
 masks what is a direct contradiction in terms.

What non-physical postulate?

Under strictly
 physical analysis, the equivalence it postulates - i.e. that
 arbitrarily many heterogeneous PM dispositions (a) instantiate the
 same homogeneous physical state (b)

It doesn't postulate physcial equivalence, it postulates computatioal
equivalence.

- simply evaporates, since in
 making any plausible appeal to direct physical explanation (a) and (b)
 could only coherently be characterisations of identical physical
 systems.

 David


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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 01:21, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 On 31 Aug, 15:14, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  I would not put AR on the same par as PM(*).

  I know that Peter have problem with this, but AR does not commit you
  ontologically. It is just the idea that arithmetical propositions are
  either true or false.

 Yes, I think I finally understand your view on this.  It relies on the
 denial of CTM+PM as a theory of mind,

I thought it was supposed to be a disproof

Anyone can deny something

 but does not thereby rule out
 the conceivability of a level of zero-virtuality supervening on PM.
 Rather it shows that, for any putative computational realisation of
 mind, any such attribution is both absolutely unknowable and causally
 irrelevant.

I have argued that it is unknowable in the sense that
sceptical hypotheses sucha s the BIV are undisprovable,
We generally disregard them anyway,
since, for one thing, we would have no idea which to accept.


 This clearly unmasks any such notion of PM as a
 superfluous assumption with respect to CTM, and Occam consequently
 dictates that we discard it as any part of the theory.

Au contraire, occam requires us to throw away the assumptions
that we are 1 level deep, 2 levels deep... in  a virtualisation.

Real reality is the simplest assumption

 IOW it is the
 prior assumption of CTM itself that drives the chain of inference, as
 you have always claimed.  And I further agree that *on the basis of
 CTM* it then follows that no meaning of 'exist' should be taken
 literally.  It is very much to your credit that you have laid bare
 these hidden implications of CTM, as I think they are central to most
 of the myriad confusions that surround it.  If people have a complaint
 about the implications, they cannot now dodge the fact that this
 disquiet is unavoidably entailed by CTM itself.

 David

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 00:46, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/31 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  It's more an attempt to characterise our
  metaphysical *situation*: i.e. the intuition that it is enduring,
  immediate, self-referential and self-relative.   Actually, reflecting
  on exchanges with Bruno, I wonder if one might well say that this
  position is globally solipsistic.

  That reads like a contradiction in terms to me

 Etc, etc

 Peter, I must say that I sometimes find your style of commenting
 unhelpful.  Any attempt to set out one's ideas - however inadequate
 the result may be - must rely on some sequencing of thought in which
 an earlier statement may depend on a later.  Consequently when you
 interpolate the flow of the narrative with constant expostulations of
 this sort I have to wonder how much time you permit to elapse before
 concluding that what I say must be incoherent, deluded, or simply
 wrong.  

Does that mean you gave an explanation of global solipsism
somewhere?


Any of the foregoing might indeed be true, but since I don't
 force you to make comments on what I write, we might both gain more
 from the exercise if you made it more readily apparent that you reach
 your conclusions a little less precipitately.


I think you should be more concerned about the long passages
I am not commenting on. That is becuase I find them completely
incomprehensible.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 00:09, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/8/31 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  That says nothing about qualia at all.

 It would be helpful if we could deal with one issue at a time.  Most
 of the passage you commented on was intended - essentially at your
 provocation - as a contextual exploration of possible conditions for
 recallable consciousness experience, not an explication of qualia per
 se.

But the context of the thread was you asking me about Chalmer's theory
of intrinsic qualia. I answered that relevantly. You appear to have
drifted off.

 But you haven't commented on this.

OK. Memory is relevant to consciousness. It is relevant
specifically to access consciousness. it is also easily explained
physically and not therefore part of the HP and not
therefore of much philosophical interest.

  By the way, if you have a
 simple extrinsic account of the phenomena of the specious present, I'd
 be genuinely interested in more detail.  

I think I gave one. Slow communications in the brain=short term
information storage=specious present

You could hardly *not* have one.

As to qualia, I've said
 before that I believe qualitative instantiation to be beyond extrinsic
 explanation (though not beyond indirect reference) for the simple
 reason that all explanation takes place in terms of it

That couldn't be more wrong. Mathematical/structural/functional
thinking
is qualia-free, and the HP is the problem of recovering qualia from a
description
in those terms

 (if you're
 wondering what this means I trust a little introspection will
 suffice).

Done that, came to opposite conclusion.

  Do you think Chalmers suggestion that qualia are intrinsic properties
  of fundamental particles is feasible or not?

 I doubt, despite standard usages suited to technical ends, that talk
 of properties is helpful in this regard.

Are you ever going to say what this problem with properties is?

 There are fundamental
 problems with any attempt to attach first-person consciousness to
 matter,

PM or material structures and processes?

for the obvious reason that matter cannot be reduced to
 individually identifiable entities.


PM or material structures and processes?

 Consequently, the
 self-referential I is attachable only contextually to some overall
 schema in which fundamental differentiation - physical or otherwise
 (e.g. 'computational') can then play a processual role.

Can't matter have processes?

 I've remarked
 before that 'knowledge' must be regarded in the final analysis as
 ontic - i.e. we *instantiate* what we know - the subject-object
 distinction in mentality is merely a metaphor inferred from the
 polarisation of roles.  When I've said this in other contexts you've
 usually reacted with bewilderment, so if this still seems opaque
 perhaps you could specify what is unclear.  Anyway, on this basis we
 might think of qualitative instantiation as consisting in peculiarly
 differentiated ways-of-being, as distinct from the unbroken symmetry
 of the undifferentiated context.  As an aid to intuition, you could
 think of this distinction in broadly similar terms to those you have
 proposed for 'property-less' materiality as an enduring existential
 substrate for extrinsic physical properties.

Err yeah. How about you explain this property issue.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 10:58, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/1 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  I think you should be more concerned about the long passages
  I am not commenting on. That is becuase I find them completely
  incomprehensible.

 In that case you may wish to reconsider whether there is any point in
 your commenting at all.  I don't see how it helps anyone's
 understanding - mine, yours or any other reader's - if you seize on
 fragments isolated from a background of incomprehension.

Well, not commenting at all is indeed the only other option -- or the
only
other one I can initiate.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 11:09, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/1 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  This clearly unmasks any such notion of PM as a
  superfluous assumption with respect to CTM, and Occam consequently
  dictates that we discard it as any part of the theory.

  Au contraire, occam requires us to throw away the assumptions
  that we are 1 level deep, 2 levels deep... in  a virtualisation.

  Real reality is the simplest assumption

 Peter, you need to keep firmly in mind that the superfluity of PM
 follows on the *assumption* of CTM.  The razor is then applied on the
 basis of that assumption.  If you prefer a theory of mind based on
 real reality, fair enough, but then you must face the conclusion
 that CTM is no longer tenable in that role.

No, none of that follows from CTM alone. Bruno is putting
forward the Sceptical Hypothesis that I am being simulated
on a UD. However, if I am entiteld to assign a very low
likelihood to that SH along with all the many others, alowing me
to know in a good-enough way that matter is real, reality is
real etc. It is very important in these arguments to distinguish
between certain knowledge and good-enough knowledge.

BTW--why doens't O's R cut away Platonia in favour of
a smaller material universe?

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 11:16, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 Exactly,
 if mind is a computational process, there is no way for it to know it
 is being simulated on the level 0 of the real (if there is one).

 There would be *no difference* for it if it was simulated on virtual
 machine running on a virtual machine running on a virtual machine
 running on this level 0.

 Peter claims that level 0 is needed... but why ?

I claim that that is a *possiblity* and as such is enough
to show that CTM does not necessarily follow from the computability of
physics.

If mind is
 computation, level 0 plays no role in consciousness. If CTM is true, I
 could run Peter with an abacus and that Peter would still forcelly
 argues that HE IS ON LEVEL 0... which is totally untrue in that case.

And if I were a wizard I could trapsort you to Narnia and make you
believe you were still in France.

The CTM does indeed have hypotetical implciations about
virtualisation, but nothing follows from that. There is no
implication from I might be virtualised to I am virtualised any
more than from I might be  BIV..
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 11:56, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 01 Sep 2009, at 10:49, Flammarion wrote:

  Can't matter have processes?

 But in that line of discussion, the question should be: can primary
 matter have processes. You said yourself that primary matter is
 propertyless. How something without property can implement processes,
 with or without qualia?

PM has no essential properties, but is the bearer of all
otther properties. It can implement a computation in just
the same way it can be red.  (Althoguh the combinatin PM+red
is of course not PM. It is only PM as a bare substrate).

 I begin to think that your primary matter is even incompatible with
 physicalism.




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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 11:19, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/1 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

 Peter, I've considered whether anything is to be gained from my
 responding further, and much as I regret coming to this conclusion, I
 don't think we can make any further progress together on this topic.
 If such were possible, I suspect it would require a great deal more
 patience and willingness to consider world-views more comprehensively,
 probably on both our parts, rather than reciprocal logic-chopping that
 strikes me as fundamentally at cross-purposes.

Yeah. Or you could just answer my questions.

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 12:26, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/1 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  Peter, you need to keep firmly in mind that the superfluity of PM
  follows on the *assumption* of CTM.  The razor is then applied on the
  basis of that assumption.  If you prefer a theory of mind based on
  real reality, fair enough, but then you must face the conclusion
  that CTM is no longer tenable in that role.

  No, none of that follows from CTM alone. Bruno is putting
  forward the Sceptical Hypothesis that I am being simulated
  on a UD. However, if I am entiteld to assign a very low
  likelihood to that SH along with all the many others, alowing me
  to know in a good-enough way that matter is real, reality is
  real etc. It is very important in these arguments to distinguish
  between certain knowledge and good-enough knowledge.

 Well, the either the Olympia/MGA reductios entail this consequence, or
 they don't.  You imply that they don't, but you still haven't put
 forward a clear refutation in a fully explicit form that could be
 considered here on its merits.

No-one's put forward a clear statement of it either.

  Until you can do this, it isn't a
 question of certain or good-enough knowledge, but rather about the
 logical entailment of CTM itself.

It's about both. It can have entail possibilities that
are very unlikely.

 This is an extremely non-trivial
 point: the burden of the argument is that CTM entails a reversal in
 world-view; it is fundamentally incompatible with a materialist
 metaphysics.

  BTW--why doens't O's R cut away Platonia in favour of
  a smaller material universe?

 That is a tenable view.  But not with the simultaneous assumption of
 CTM.


Because?

That is the point.  I should say that my starting position
 before encountering Bruno's views was against the tenability of CTM on
 the basis of any consistent notion of physical process.  Bruno hasn't
 yet persuaded me that an explicitly non-computational theory of mind
 on some such basis is actually untenable.  But he has awakened me to
 the reverse realisation that a non-materialist world-view can tenably
 be founded on CTM

coupled with Platonism.

 David


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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 31 Aug, 15:38, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 31 Aug 2009, at 15:47, Flammarion wrote:





  On 30 Aug, 07:54, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 29 Aug 2009, at 20:34, Flammarion wrote:

  On 28 Aug, 18:02, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 28 Aug 2009, at 17:58, Brent Meeker wrote:

  If the physical laws are turing emulable, then whatever is
  responsible
  for my consciousness can be Turing emulable at some level (I assume
  some form of naturalism/materialism or computationalism).OK? If
  not,
  your brain (generalized or not) does not obeys to the laws of
  physics.

  That may buy you no more than mere simulation. The CTM is a
  stronger claim than the computability of physics. it means that you
  will
  get actual implementation (strong AI) and not just simulation (weak
  AI)

  In that sense, I am OK here. Actually strong AI is even weaker than
  CTM.

  Be that as it may, neither is directly implied by the computability of
  physics

 We agree on this.



  My reconstitution can believe wrongly that he is me, yet
  conscious. But I was assuming some naturalism here, and if the
  physical laws are computable, and I still say no to the doctor, then
  my identity is no more defined by the computation, but by the actual
  matter which constitutes me,

  That is one reason for saying no.

 But then biology makes you at most seven years old. We do have
 evidence that our body molecules are replaced rather quickly.

  Another is that your identity *is*
  given
  by the computation (in line with the idea that PM is propertiless),
  and that
  the computation needs to run on the metal (at 0 levelsof
  virtualisation)
  to be genuinely conscious and not just an ersatz functional
  equivalent.

 But then you say no the digit-doctor and CTM is abandoned.

Yes, it is supposed to be a reason for sayign no. The
point is that it si a reason compatible with teh computability
of physics. People who say no do not have to be assuming
uncomputatiblity as you keep insisting.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 31 Aug, 15:14, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 30 Aug 2009, at 23:21, David Nyman wrote:



  2009/8/28 Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com:

  Ok, so you want to solve the hard problem right at the beginning by
  taking conscious thoughts as the basic elements of your ontology.

  No I don't - that's why I said I'd rather not use the word
  consciousness.  What I have in mind at this point in the argument is a
  primitive, not an elaborated, notion - like PM vis-a-vis materialism,
  or AR vis-a-vis comp.

 I would not put AR on the same par as PM(*).

 I know that Peter have problem with this, but AR does not commit you
 ontologically.

if it doesn't, there is no UD, and no existential conclusions follow
from your arguments.

 It is just the idea that arithmetical propositions are
 either true or false. It is an initial segment of all theories capable
 to prove the existence of universal machine (be it quantum mechanics,
 Newtonian Physics, real numbers + trigonometry, etc.). Only
 philosopher of mathematics can doubt it, and even here, few doubt it.
 A slightly variant of AR works for intuitionism. I really think you
 have to be an ultrafinitist to believe that AR is false. AR is used
 implicitly by formalist, and formalist can use formal version of AR,
 except the day they do say consciopusly (aware of the risk) yes to
 a digitalist doctor

Bivalence (AR qua truth) is indeed used by a lot of people,
but it doesn't buy you an ontologically exisiting UD.

 PM is a metaphysical commitment that a primary substance exists. It is
 already part of a theology, in the large sense of the word. AR is used
 by everyone, PM is argued by theologians and philosophers. PM does not
 really appears in the theories by physicists. AR is explicitly used by
 them. AR is used when you say that sin2pix = 0 has an infinity of
 solutions, for example.  You can doubt it, of course, but then you
 have to accept ultra-finitism, or something like that.

 CT is a principle already far stronger and far more counter-intuitive
 than AR. yet I have never met someone doubting CT, and as I will show
 in detail soon enough, CT just makes no sense at all without AR.

 Bruno

 (*)
 AR = Arithmetical realism,
 PM = primary substance exists
 CT = Church's Thesis  (Post's law, Turing's thesis, Church-Turing's
 thesis, etc.).

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 15:00, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 On 1 Sep, 13:08, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  That is the point.  I should say that my starting position
   before encountering Bruno's views was against the tenability of CTM on
   the basis of any consistent notion of physical process.  Bruno hasn't
   yet persuaded me that an explicitly non-computational theory of mind
   on some such basis is actually untenable.  But he has awakened me to
   the reverse realisation that a non-materialist world-view can tenably
   be founded on CTM

  coupled with Platonism.

 With respect, Peter, you continue to miss the point.  What Bruno has
 demonstrated is that CTM as a mind-body theory (which is what UDA-8
 shows it must be) makes no ontological commitment *by its very
 virtuality*.  Or rather, any such commitment is shown to be vacuous.

There's got to be somehting at the bottom of the stack. Bruno
wants to substitue matetr with Platonia as the substrate.
If there is nothing at the bottom
of the stack, there are no virtualisations running higher up.

 Consequently under CTM, one is committed to RITSIAR=virtual, not
 RITSIAR=platonic.

CTM only suggests that I *could* be virtualised. Alternatively
I could be running on the metal. I do wish you guys would undertand
that
Possible X = actually X
is a fallacy.

 Now, one obviously has the option *precisely in
 virtue of this* to dismiss CTM as itself vacuous.  But this is the
 value of the insight: its force is to commit you to these explicit
 choices, and hence to cease vacillating between incompatible
 theoretical conjunctions.

No incompatibility has been demonstrated.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 14:40, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 On 1 Sep, 12:04, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  Yeah. Or you could just answer my questions.

 The problem is the world of assumption contained in your use of
 just.

Really?

There is no possibility of a context-free 'objective'
 exchange of views.  There must be some sympathetic matching of
 contexts of understanding, even if only for the honourable purpose of
 comprehending a viewpoint as intended in order to discount it with a
 clear conscience.

it is standard practice for lecturers to ask for quesitons when they
have
finished. They do that because it works -- it clears up
misudnerstandings.
Assuming that miscommunication has to be the audiences fault doesn;t
work.
I have never seen that in a professional settign but it is quite
common on
usenet.

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 15:50, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/1 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:





  On 1 Sep, 15:00, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
  On 1 Sep, 13:08, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

   That is the point.  I should say that my starting position
before encountering Bruno's views was against the tenability of CTM on
the basis of any consistent notion of physical process.  Bruno hasn't
yet persuaded me that an explicitly non-computational theory of mind
on some such basis is actually untenable.  But he has awakened me to
the reverse realisation that a non-materialist world-view can tenably
be founded on CTM

   coupled with Platonism.

  With respect, Peter, you continue to miss the point.  What Bruno has
  demonstrated is that CTM as a mind-body theory (which is what UDA-8
  shows it must be) makes no ontological commitment *by its very
  virtuality*.  Or rather, any such commitment is shown to be vacuous.

  There's got to be somehting at the bottom of the stack. Bruno
  wants to substitue matetr with Platonia as the substrate.
  If there is nothing at the bottom
  of the stack, there are no virtualisations running higher up.

 There's no bottom. Why would you need one ? It's turtle all the way down !

That's another version of Platonia and therefore still an ontological
commitment.

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 16:32, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 01 Sep 2009, at 16:32, Flammarion wrote:





  On 1 Sep, 15:00, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
  On 1 Sep, 13:08, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  That is the point.  I should say that my starting position
  before encountering Bruno's views was against the tenability of
  CTM on
  the basis of any consistent notion of physical process.  Bruno
  hasn't
  yet persuaded me that an explicitly non-computational theory of
  mind
  on some such basis is actually untenable.  But he has awakened me
  to
  the reverse realisation that a non-materialist world-view can
  tenably
  be founded on CTM

  coupled with Platonism.

  With respect, Peter, you continue to miss the point.  What Bruno has
  demonstrated is that CTM as a mind-body theory (which is what UDA-8
  shows it must be) makes no ontological commitment *by its very
  virtuality*.  Or rather, any such commitment is shown to be vacuous.

  There's got to be somehting at the bottom of the stack. Bruno
  wants to substitue matetr with Platonia as the substrate.
  If there is nothing at the bottom
  of the stack, there are no virtualisations running higher up.

  Consequently under CTM, one is committed to RITSIAR=virtual, not
  RITSIAR=platonic.

  CTM only suggests that I *could* be virtualised. Alternatively
  I could be running on the metal. I do wish you guys would undertand
  that
  Possible X = actually X
  is a fallacy.

 So you have a problem with the indexical approach of time, and space.

i don't know what you mean by that.

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 16:55, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 01 Sep 2009, at 17:46, Flammarion wrote:





  On 1 Sep, 16:32, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 01 Sep 2009, at 16:32, Flammarion wrote:

  On 1 Sep, 15:00, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
  On 1 Sep, 13:08, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  That is the point.  I should say that my starting position
  before encountering Bruno's views was against the tenability of
  CTM on
  the basis of any consistent notion of physical process.  Bruno
  hasn't
  yet persuaded me that an explicitly non-computational theory of
  mind
  on some such basis is actually untenable.  But he has awakened me
  to
  the reverse realisation that a non-materialist world-view can
  tenably
  be founded on CTM

  coupled with Platonism.

  With respect, Peter, you continue to miss the point.  What Bruno
  has
  demonstrated is that CTM as a mind-body theory (which is what UDA-8
  shows it must be) makes no ontological commitment *by its very
  virtuality*.  Or rather, any such commitment is shown to be
  vacuous.

  There's got to be somehting at the bottom of the stack. Bruno
  wants to substitue matetr with Platonia as the substrate.
  If there is nothing at the bottom
  of the stack, there are no virtualisations running higher up.

  Consequently under CTM, one is committed to RITSIAR=virtual, not
  RITSIAR=platonic.

  CTM only suggests that I *could* be virtualised. Alternatively
  I could be running on the metal. I do wish you guys would undertand
  that
  Possible X = actually X
  is a fallacy.

  So you have a problem with the indexical approach of time, and space.

  i don't know what you mean by that.

 The indexical approach of time is that now, is any moment as see as
 from that moment point of view. Similar ideas have been used by
 Galilee, Everett, Einstein, and there is a modern movement in
 philosophy of physics which vindicates a more general use, like the
 one I am using where actuality is possibility or consistency as seen
 from inside. All block universe approaches are based on that idea.
 See for example:

I don't see what that has to do with the possible=actual fallacy

 Now, Time, and Quantum Mechanics, edited by Michel Bitbol and Eva
 Ruhnau, Frontière, Paris, 1994.

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 17:29, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 On 1 Sep, 09:49, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

 There are two points you make that I'd like to comment specifically
 on:

  OK. Memory is relevant to consciousness. It is relevant
  specifically to access consciousness. it is also easily explained
  physically and not therefore part of the HP and not
  therefore of much philosophical interest.

 I agree that this is not part of the HP.  It is however highly
 relevant to the grain issue and the apparent conscious-unconscious
 dichotomy, which are two of the things you have been pressing me on.

Well, it might explain why we have a coarse-grained something-or-
other,
but it doesn't explain why that something-or-other would be qualia.

 Hence given such relevance I can hardly agree that it lacks
 philosophical interest.

By the way, if you have a
   simple extrinsic account of the phenomena of the specious present, I'd
   be genuinely interested in more detail.

  I think I gave one. Slow communications in the brain=short term
  information storage=specious present

  You could hardly *not* have one.

 Yes, I thought this was probably what you had in mind.  This is what I
 meant by the assumption of a simple traverse through time, and hence
 your proposal is at odds with either flux or block models of time.

 The slow communications you refer to, under the flux interpretation,
 would simply decompose into multiple slices, which taken individually
 could not plausibly constitute the specious present.

Not at all. Slow communications would mean that any time-slice
of the brain contained information that arrived at the periphery of
the nervous
system at an earlier time slice. I am leanign on the idea that we
access the past trhough records existing in the present.

You seem to be resing on the idea that we have to have some
sort of direct access to the past.

 Hence short
 term information storage outside such individual slices already
 presupposes some form of integration 'through time' - i.e. across
 slices.


It presupposes that one moment of time *causes* what
happens in later moments. What's wrogn with that?

This points to the fact that there is something deeply
 counter intuitive about our actual experience of the 'present moment'
 with respect to either of the standard temporal analyses.

I stil don't see any real problem with the specious present.

 My strong suspicion (and be clear I'm not putting it any higher than
 this) is that the same mechanism that synthesises and presents
 integrated temporal experience (think of melody as opposed to pitch)
 is also central to the qualitative aspect of self-conscious states.


 IOW there's something going on that both integrates and differentiates
 the internal worlds we inhabit, in this characteristic way, that is
 not analysable in terms of simple linear process through the standard
 time dimension of physics.

You mean the specious present specifically isn't capable of physical
analysis? That is very far from demonstrated.

I would also suspect that this is relevant
 to why qualia have been so elusive on the basis of such analyses.  The
 basic 'temporal' notion bears some family resemblance to ideas such as
 Barbour's time capsules, although in discussion he did not commit
 definitively on the precise relationship between this conception and
 the full duration of the specious present.

 David


time capsules are just what I am talking about. Why would you need
anythign more for the specious present than a snapshop some of
which is out of date?
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 17:29, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 01 Sep 2009, at 18:11, Flammarion wrote:





  On 1 Sep, 16:34, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 01 Sep 2009, at 16:53, Flammarion wrote:

  That's another version of Platonia and therefore still an
  ontological
  commitment.

  No, it is the same arithmetical truth, but from the first person
  perspective.

  A bottomless stack that has no ontological existence is irrelevant.
  I can't be implemented by what doesn't exist.

 By comp, mainly by Church thesis only, you (in the third person sense)
 are implemented in the mathematical UD. OK?


The mathemaitcal UD doesn't exist.

 The rest, that is that the first person-you-with-qualia appears also
 there, in a highly distributed form, follows from MGA.

 Bruno

  Either it is warmed-over Platonia or it is nothing.

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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Re: Emulation and Stuff

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 31 Aug, 21:31, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 31 Aug 2009, at 19:31, Flammarion wrote:





  On 28 Aug, 16:08, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 28 Aug 2009, at 14:46, Flammarion wrote:

  On 22 Aug, 08:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 21 Aug 2009, at 10:28, Flammarion wrote:

  1. Something that ontologically exists can only be caused or
  generated
  by something else that does
  2. I ontologically exist
  3. According to you, I am generated by the UD
  4. Therefore the UD must ontologically exist.

  Step 4 is really step 0 which I have worked backwards
  to here

   5. But the UD exists only mathematically.

  Thus, ontological existence = mathematical existence.

  There is no usual one, since there is no one agreed ontology
  of mathematics.

  For sets and functions, you may be right. For numbers, there is a
  general mathematical agreement.

  No there isn't.

  What is the disagreement?

  The age old debate about whether numbers exist

 You confuse the use of number in physics, and in cognitive science,
 and in computer science, with metaphysical discussion I do avoid. When
 I say that there is no disagreement about the numbers, I mean that
 most scientist agree on the use of the classical tautologies in
 arithmetic. Nothing more. Or show me where.

tautologies don't buy you a UD. Unicorns=unicorns doesn;t mean
there are any unicorns.

  There may be no philosophical
  argument, but this is not relevant to undersatnd the non
  philosophical
  reasoning.

  Ontology is philosophy. You can't settle ontological quesitons
  with mathematical proofs.

  Philosophy, or theology. OK. But comp is an assumption in cognitive-
  science/philosophy/theology.

  No. *CTM* is. Comp* is your own fusion of CTM with
  Platonism

 Comp is CTM + 2+2 is equal to 4 or 2+2 is not equal to 4.

AR qua truth does nto buy you a UD either

 Wait I explain CT, you will see what I mean more easily.




  It is an assumption that a form of
  reincarnation is possible.

  This is not pure mathematics. UDA belongs
  to the intersection of cognitive and physic science. UDA is not
  purely
  mathematical.

  It is not going anywhere without some ontological
  assumptions either. since it has an ontological conclusion.

 I am using the hypothesis that my consciousness will be relatively
 preserved by a transformation of my brain, and Church thesis. And the
 conclusion is epistemological: comp - physics is a branch of number
 theory, but with a gift: that physics is part of a larger thing (and
 splits into qualia and quanta). I don't make publicly ontological
 commitment. I give a theory, theorems, and a practical way to test the
 consequence of the theory.


The fact that you don't majke your ontological assumptions
explicit is just the problem.

  You are aware. are you not, that philosophers
  and mathematicians are still writing books and papers attacking
  and defending Platonism and other approaches?

  Platonism is used by both philosopher and mathematician as
  something
  far more general than arithmetical realism, on which all
  mathematicians agree.

  I am not concerned with argument about how many pixies exist.

  So a doubt about the existence of a large cardinal in set theory rise
  a doubt about the existence of seven?

  No. A doubt about the ontological existence of seven leads
  to a doubt about the rest.

 A doubt on seven, would destroy the argument. Indeed!
 I personally don't believe in ontological seven, as far as I can make
 a sense on that.

Well, if the UD isn't ontological either, I am not being simulated on
it.


  I have use arithmetical realism, because I have never met any
  difficulty, among mathematicians, physicians and computer scientist.
  Nor even with philosophers, except some which just dodge the issues
  of
  showing what they miss in the argument.

  Hmm. Well, you would say that, wouldn't you.

 I was thinking of you, and some old friends. But at least, you make
 the dodging in public, my friends never did. I thank you for that.


  My work has been indeed rejected in Brussels, by philsophers. But it
  has been defended a s a PhD thesis by a jury with mathematician,
  computer scientist, physician (yes, not physicist, but doctor!).

  But it is a philosophical thesis, since its conclusion is the nature
  of existence.

 Not at all. I see the bigness of the misunderstanding here. I just use
 the scientific way to proceed in theology.

Theology is philosophy and then some

 This is what I like with the Church Turing thesis, it makes possible
 to keep the agnostic scientific attitude in very deep question, and to
 proceed by theories and verification, and this in a field that
 atheists like to relegate to religious crackpot.
 Atheists and other religious fundamentailist hates this work, but that
 is normal. My work shows atheism and some religion are very close
 compared to the abysse between atheism and agnosticism (be it on mind,
 matter, god

Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-01 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 18:14, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/1 Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com:





  David Nyman wrote:
  2009/9/1 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  I claim that that is a *possiblity* and as such is enough
  to show that CTM does not necessarily follow from the computability of
  physics.

  It may be easy to lose sight, in the flurry of debate, that the
  argument is against CTM+PM.  AFAICS nobody is claiming that the
  assumption of CTM is *forced* by the computability of physics,
  although the contrary would of course argue against it.  Rather, *once
  CTM is assumed* the entailment on the basis of UDA-8 is that PM is
  false, or at best superfluous.  If we can't get past this point, we're
  doomed to go round in circles.

  The CTM does indeed have hypotetical implciations about
  virtualisation, but nothing follows from that. There is no
  implication from I might be virtualised to I am virtualised any
  more than from I might be  BIV..

  On the contrary, the insight that Bruno points out is that the force
  of CTM consists precisely in the *assumption* that I am virtualised;
  else it has no force.  This is the point.  UDA-8 is then designed to
  expose the entailment that my generalised environment is virtualised
  is thereby also forced.  Consequently the CTM is forced to be a theory
  of mind-body, or else nothing.

  How did we get from a hypothetical that I am virtualised to something
  being *forced*?  This is like saying I might be virtualised entails I
  must be virtualised.

  Brent

 I don't see it this way...

 The level 0 has nothing that can be detected/tested if CTM is true
 by a computational observer (us if CTM is true). Level 0 plays no
 role.

That is the repetition of the usual mistake. I can have good
reason to believe I am on level 0 without having evidence. THe
reason is given by Occam's razor -- which is also the reason
I have to believe I am not a BIV etc etc etc.

 So I see no points in positing one in the first place.
 Simulation is
 relative to an UTM not to an innaccessible substrate.

I see no point in positing immaterial UTMs
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-02 Thread Flammarion



On 1 Sep, 23:48, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 On 1 Sep, 17:46, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  time capsules are just what I am talking about. Why would you need
  anythign more for the specious present than a snapshop some of
  which is out of date?

 Well, as well as the question of what constitutes the qualitative
 character of such snapshots, one might also wonder about the curious
 fact that such 'frozen' capsules nonetheless appear to us as
 possessing internal temporal duration and differentiation.  

Easily explained if perceptual data are timestamped.

This seems
 to appeal simultaneously to aspects of both flux and block models of
 time whilst being entirely consistent with neither.



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Re: Against Physics

2009-09-02 Thread Flammarion



On 2 Sep, 03:10, Rex Allen rexallen...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Tue, Sep 1, 2009 at 9:13 AM, David Nymandavid.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

  I think his exploration of
  the constraints on our actions in Freedom Evolves is pretty much on
  the money.

 So I can't comment on Freedom Evolves, as I haven't read it.  But I
 have read some of his articles and seen him debate and give
 interviews.  So that sounds like Dennett alright - rearranging deck
 chairs, redefining words, whatever it takes.

 From the wikipedia article on Freedom Evolves:

 In his treatment of both free will and altruism, he starts by showing
 why we should not accept the traditional definitions of either term.

 So, as I said, you can't read quote of Dennett and accept it at face
 value, because Dennett doesn't restrict himself to traditional
 definitions of terms.  You have to interpret Dennett's quotes within
 the context of his web of alternate, non-traditional compatibilist
 word definitions.

 Dennett's main goal is not to show that determinism is compatible with
 free will (which it isn't),

actually it is, although I don't find it very convincing

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-02 Thread Flammarion



On 2 Sep, 16:58, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/2 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  Well, as well as the question of what constitutes the qualitative
  character of such snapshots, one might also wonder about the curious
  fact that such 'frozen' capsules nonetheless appear to us as
  possessing internal temporal duration and differentiation.

  Easily explained if perceptual data are timestamped.

 Yes, that would appear to be the specification, more or less.  What's
 the implementation?


Is that a philosophical question?



  On 1 Sep, 23:48, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
  On 1 Sep, 17:46, Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

   time capsules are just what I am talking about. Why would you need
   anythign more for the specious present than a snapshop some of
   which is out of date?

  Well, as well as the question of what constitutes the qualitative
  character of such snapshots, one might also wonder about the curious
  fact that such 'frozen' capsules nonetheless appear to us as
  possessing internal temporal duration and differentiation.

  Easily explained if perceptual data are timestamped.

 This seems
  to appeal simultaneously to aspects of both flux and block models of
  time whilst being entirely consistent with neither.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-02 Thread Flammarion



On 2 Sep, 16:56, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/2 Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com:

  But the physical implementation (cause?) is invariant in it's functional
  relations.  That's why two physical implementations which are different
  at some lower level can be said to implement the same computation at a
  higher level.  I see nothing incoherent is saying that two physically
  different computers perform the same computation.  So if mental states
  are certain kinds of computations (either physically realized or in
  Platonia) they can be realized on different, i.e. non-invariant physical
  processes.  What's incoherent about that?

 I wonder what you mean by either physically realized or in Platonia?
   ISTM that there is not one assumption here, but two.  If computation
 is restricted to the sense of physical realisation, then there is
 indeed nothing problematic in saying that two physically different
 computers perform the same computation.  We can understand what is
 meant without ambiguity; 'different' is indeed different, and any
 identity is thus non-physical (i.e. relational).  But 'realisation' of
 such relational identity in Platonia in the form of an invariant
 experiential state is surely something else entirely: i.e. if it is a
 supplementary hypothesis to PM it is dualism.

Why would a believer in CTM need to make that additional step?
(You seem to be talkign about the abstract computaitonal state
having exitence independent from its concrete physcial
isntantiations).

 The point of Bruno's
 argument is to force a choice between the attachment of experience to
 physical process or computation; but not both at the same time.

I see no problem with mental states attaching to phsycial processes
via the computaitons instantiated by them. AFAICS that is still CTM.
Since every instance of  a computation *is* an instance of a phsycial
process as well, there is no either/or.

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-02 Thread Flammarion



On 2 Sep, 17:56, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/2 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  I wonder what you mean by either physically realized or in Platonia?
ISTM that there is not one assumption here, but two.  If computation
  is restricted to the sense of physical realisation, then there is
  indeed nothing problematic in saying that two physically different
  computers perform the same computation.  We can understand what is
  meant without ambiguity; 'different' is indeed different, and any
  identity is thus non-physical (i.e. relational).  But 'realisation' of
  such relational identity in Platonia in the form of an invariant
  experiential state is surely something else entirely: i.e. if it is a
  supplementary hypothesis to PM it is dualism.

  Why would a believer in CTM need to make that additional step?
  (You seem to be talkign about the abstract computaitonal state
  having exitence independent from its concrete physcial
  isntantiations).

 No, I was querying whether Brent was implying this by his reference to
 mental states realised in Platonia but nonetheless deemed to supervene
 on physical process.  But without such dual supervention, where does
 that leave CTM+PM?  Either we're appealing to
 experience=computation=invariant, or we're appealing to
 experience=physical process=variant.

Well, I've asked before, but what does (in) variant mean here?

 If we seek refuge in both, then
 in what sense can we maintain an identity?  Does invariant=variant?
 But if what is meant by this is that physical process is only relevant
 to experience *inasmuch as it functionally instantiates a computation*
 - i.e. only the non-physical aspects make any difference - then
 precisely what remains of experience that is physical?  The term Bruno
 sometimes uses for any such sense of 'physical' is 'spurious', and I
 think that about sums it up.

 David

i suspect you are mixing types and tokens. But I await an answer to
the question
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Re: Against Physics

2009-09-02 Thread Flammarion



On 2 Sep, 18:03, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 Flammarion wrote:

  On 2 Sep, 03:10, Rex Allen rexallen...@gmail.com wrote:

  On Tue, Sep 1, 2009 at 9:13 AM, David Nymandavid.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

  I think his exploration of
  the constraints on our actions in Freedom Evolves is pretty much on
  the money.

  So I can't comment on Freedom Evolves, as I haven't read it.  But I
  have read some of his articles and seen him debate and give
  interviews.  So that sounds like Dennett alright - rearranging deck
  chairs, redefining words, whatever it takes.

  From the wikipedia article on Freedom Evolves:

  In his treatment of both free will and altruism, he starts by showing
  why we should not accept the traditional definitions of either term.

  So, as I said, you can't read quote of Dennett and accept it at face
  value, because Dennett doesn't restrict himself to traditional
  definitions of terms.  You have to interpret Dennett's quotes within
  the context of his web of alternate, non-traditional compatibilist
  word definitions.

  Dennett's main goal is not to show that determinism is compatible with
  free will (which it isn't),

  actually it is, although I don't find it very convincing

 I think Dennett's point is that compatibilist free-will has all the
 chracteristics of free-will that people usually think are important -
 it's all the free-will worth having.

I'm not convinced by that either
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-02 Thread Flammarion



On 2 Sep, 21:20, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/2 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  i suspect you are mixing types and tokens. But I await an answer to
  the question

 Well, a computation is a type,

A type of computation is  a type.

A token of a type of computation is a token.

 and is thus not any particular physical
 object.  A specific physical implementation is a token of that
 computational type, and is indeed a physical object, albeit one whose
 physical details can be of any variety so long as they continue to
 instantiate the relevant computational invariance.  Hence it is hard
 to see how a specific (invariant) example of an experiential state
 could be justified as being token-identical with all the different
 physical implementations of a computation.

I was right.

A mental type can be associated with a computational
type.

Any token of a mental type can be associated with a token
of the corresponding computational type.

The difficulty comes from mixing types and tokens.

  It might appear that a
 defence against the foregoing is to say that only the appropriate
 functionally-distinguished subsets of the entire implementing
 substrate need be deemed tokens of the relevant computational type,
 and that actual occasions of experience can be considered to be
 token-identical with these subsets.

 But even on this basis it still doesn't seem possible to establish any
 consistent identity between the physical variety of the tokens thus
 distinguished and a putatively unique experiential state.

The variety of the physical implementations is reduced by grouping
them
as  equivalent computational types. Computation is abstract.
Abstraction is
ignoring irrelevant details. Ignoring irrelevant details establishes a
many-to-one relationship : many possible implementations of one mental
state.

  On the
 contrary, any unbiased a priori prediction would be of experiential
 variance on the basis of physical variance.

Yes. The substance of the CTM claim is that physical
differences do not make  a mental difference unless they
make a computational difference. That is to say, switching from
one token of a type of computation to another cannot make
a difference in mentation. That is not to be expected on an
unbiased basis, just because it is a substantive claim.

Hence continuing to
 insist on physically-based token-identity seems entirely ad hoc.


Identity of what with what?

 The unique challenge facing us, on the assumption of primitive
 materiality, is the personally manifest existence of an experiential
 state associated with a physical system.  The first person gives us a
 unique insight in this instance which is unavailable for other
 type-token analyses.  Ordinarily, picking out functional invariance in
 physical systems is unproblematic, because the invariance is one of
 type, not of token.  

Uhhhexactly how does the first person insight
break the invariance-of-type-with-variance-of-token thing?

The token may vary but the type-token association
 is unharmed.  

So long as it is a token of the same type, yes.

But, uniquely, this doesn't hold for a theory of mind
 based on primitive materiality, because now we have a unique
 token-identity - mind-body - and thus it is inconsistent to expect
 to substitute an entirely different type of body and expect no
 substantive change on the other side of the identical doublet.

Why? I see nothing there except blunt dogmatic insistence.

In general, randomly selecting another body will lead to another mind.
But
that is not different from saying that randomly selecting differently
configured hardware will lead to a different computation. The point of
CTM is that making a non-random substitution -- that is, picking
another
token of the same type of computation -- will also automatically
amount to picking another
token of the same type of mentation. I have no idea why you think
introducing
a first person would make a difference.

 The
 resort of desperation is of course to disregard this unique
 distinction, or worse to relegate experience to mere typehood; but in
 that case we eliminate it from concrete existence.

 David

  No, I was querying whether Brent was implying this by his reference to
  mental states realised in Platonia but nonetheless deemed to supervene
  on physical process.  But without such dual supervention, where does
  that leave CTM+PM?  Either we're appealing to
  experience=computation=invariant, or we're appealing to
  experience=physical process=variant.

  Well, I've asked before, but what does (in) variant mean here?

And i still haven't found out.
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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-03 Thread Flammarion



On 3 Sep, 09:41, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/3 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:





  On 3 Sep, 01:26, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
  2009/9/2 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

   and is thus not any particular physical
   object.  A specific physical implementation is a token of that
   computational type, and is indeed a physical object, albeit one whose
   physical details can be of any variety so long as they continue to
   instantiate the relevant computational invariance.  Hence it is hard
   to see how a specific (invariant) example of an experiential state
   could be justified as being token-identical with all the different
   physical implementations of a computation.

   I was right.

   A mental type can be associated with a computational
   type.

   Any token of a mental type can be associated with a token
   of the corresponding computational type.

  But what difference is that supposed to make?  The type association is
  implicit in what I was saying.  All you've said above is that it makes
  no difference whether one talks in terms of the mental type or the
  associated computational type because their equivalence is a posit of
  CTM.  And whether it is plausible that the physical tokens so picked
  out possess the causal efficacy presupposed by CTM is precisely what I
  was questioning.

  question it then. what's the problem?

   But even on this basis it still doesn't seem possible to establish any
   consistent identity between the physical variety of the tokens thus
   distinguished and a putatively unique experiential state.

   The variety of the physical implementations is reduced by grouping
   them
   as  equivalent computational types. Computation is abstract.
   Abstraction is
   ignoring irrelevant details. Ignoring irrelevant details establishes a
   many-to-one relationship : many possible implementations of one mental
   state.

  Again, that's not an argument - you're just reciting the *assumptions*
  of CTM, not arguing for their plausibility.

  you're not arguing against its plausibility

  The justification of the
  supposed irrelevance of particular physical details is that they are
  required to be ignored for the supposed efficacy of the type-token
  relation to be plausible.  That doesn't make it so.

  why not? we already know they can be ignored to establish
  computational
  equivalence.

On the
   contrary, any unbiased a priori prediction would be of experiential
   variance on the basis of physical variance.

   Yes. The substance of the CTM claim is that physical
   differences do not make  a mental difference unless they
   make a computational difference. That is to say, switching from
   one token of a type of computation to another cannot make
   a difference in mentation. That is not to be expected on an
   unbiased basis, just because it is a substantive claim.

  Yes it's precisely the claim whose plausibility I've been questioning.

  You haven't said anything specific about what is wrong with it at all.

   The variety of the physical implementations is reduced by grouping
   them
   as  equivalent computational types. Computation is abstract.
   Abstraction is
   ignoring irrelevant details. Ignoring irrelevant details establishes a
   many-to-one relationship : many possible implementations of one mental
   state.

  Yes thanks, this is indeed the hypothesis.  But simply recapitulating
  the assumptions isn't exactly an uncommitted assessment of their
  plausibility is it?

  Saying it is not necessarily correct is not a critique

 That can only immunise it from criticism.  There
  is no whiff in CTM of why it should be considered plausible on
  physical grounds alone.

  Hence counter arguments can legitimately
  question the consistency of its claims as a physical theory in the
  absence of its type-token presuppositions.

   If you mean you can criticise the CTM as offering nothing specific
  to resolve the HP, you are correct. But I *thought* we were
  discussing the MG/Olympia style of argument, which purportedly
  still applies even if you restrict yourself to cognition and forget
  about experience/qualia.
  Are we?

  Look, let me turn this round.  You've said before that you're not a
  diehard partisan of CTM.  What in your view would be persuasive
  grounds for doubting it?

  I'll explain below. But the claim I am interested in is that CTM
  somehow disproves materalism (Maudlin, BTW takes it the other way
  around--
  materialism disproves CTM). I have heard not a word in support of
  *that* claim.

  ust an Artificial Intellence be a Computer ?

  An AI is not necessarily a computer. Not everything is a computer or
  computer-emulable. It just needs to be artificial and intelligent!

 Then it's no more *CTM*. (C means Computational)

I know. I am not defending CTM against all-comers. I am trying to find
out why some people
think it is incompatible with mateialsim

Re: Yablo, Quine and Carnap on ontology

2009-09-04 Thread Flammarion



On 3 Sep, 17:12, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:
 Dear Peter,
 the Yablo-Carnac-Gallois-Quine compendium is an interesting reading - except
 for missing the crux:
 You, as a person, with knowledge about the ideas of the bickering
 philosophers, could do us the politesse of a brief summary about who is
 stating what (very few lines) which may increase the understanding of the
 innocent by-reader about the generalities mentioned back and forth. I for
 one looked at the 2 URL-s, long as one of them may be, and found further
 generalities as in a style of scientifically 'expert' discussions/arguments.

One of my reasons for posting it was to illustrate that there is in
fact
a debate about ontology. Bruno has been arguign that numbers
exist because there are true mathematical statements asserting their
existence. The counterargument is that existence in mathematical
statements is merely metaphorical. That is what is being argued
backwards
and forwards.

 I did not read so far and did not study these versions, so reading your (and
 their) papers was frustrating.
 I am fundamentally opposed to 'ontology', because I consider it explaining
 the partial knowledge we have about 'the world' as if it were the total. I
 am for epistemology, the growing information-staple we absorb.
 Most people stand on ontological grounds. I wanted to get a glimps.
 Could you help?
 John M

 On Wed, Sep 2, 2009 at 1:35 PM, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  Yablo and Gallois's paper Is ontology based on a mistake is quite
  relevant to
  the question of Platonism, specificall whether true matehmatical
  assertions
  of existence have to be taken literally.

 http://tinyurl.com/ldekg7

  
  What is it?

  A paper criticising the Quinean view of ontology. Yablo does so by
  introduces a metaphorical/literal distinction as to when it is
  reasonable to posit the existence of entities. Thus in order to
  determine our ontological commitments we need to be able to extract
  all cases in which such entities are posited in a metaphorical way
  rather than a literal one. If there is no way to do this, then it is
  not possible to develop a Quinean ontology.

  Where does it fit in for me?

  For the thesis: if correct, it implies that Quine's fundamental
  approach to ontology is flawed and this may have negative implications
  for the Quine-Putnam indispensability argument.

  For the metaphysics paper: possibly details a way in which existence
  cannot be held to occur (which would be interesting to look at in
  terms of the relations proposed). At the very least it gives an
  example of particular existence claims which can then be analysed in a
  relational way.

  Reference
  Yablo, S., Does ontology rest on a mistake?, Proceedings of the
  Aristotelian Society, supp. vol. LXXII (1998), 229-261.

  The Argument

  Carnap on existence
  Carnap argued that the realist existence question/assertion was
  meaningless. He did this by means of his concept of linguistic
  framework. A linguistic framework lays down rules for the use and
  meaning of some object term X in a linguistic sense. Thus there are
  two ways in which one can question/assert the existence of X: internal
  or external to the linguistic framework.

  If one questions the existence of X internal to the framework, one is
  almost certainly guaranteed a yes answer (thus the statement there is
  an X can pretty much be viewed as tautological when assessed
  internally to a framework involving X). Hence the realist must be
  making an external existence assertion. However, in this case the term
  X has no meaning, as the framework within which it gains such is not
  present. Thus the realist existence question/assertion is either
  tautological or impossible to answer/assess.

  Quine on Carnap
  Quine objected to Carnap's position in three ways: firstly, he held
  that his internal/external distinction was reliant on an analytic/
  synthetic distinction (because the concept of a linguistic framework
  involves the rules inherent in that framework being viewed as
  indefeasible (i.e. analytic) within that particular linguistic
  practice). As Quine believed that the analytic/synthetic distinction
  could not be made, he held that Carnap's internal/external distinction
  breaks down: internal assessments are thus not just a matter of
  following inviolable linguistic rules, it is indeed possible for these
  rules to change in response to experience and thus for internal
  practice to change too.

  Secondly, Quine argues that the external choice between linguistic
  frameworks is much more influenced by observation than Carnap would
  have us believe. For Quine, the decision to adopt a rule governing the
  appropriate observational conditions under which one may assert the
  existence of X is itself in part an assertion that X exists (if such
  conditions obtain). He 

Re: Yablo, Quine and Carnap on ontology

2009-09-04 Thread Flammarion



On 3 Sep, 17:12, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:


 I am fundamentally opposed to 'ontology', because I consider it explaining
 the partial knowledge we have about 'the world' as if it were the total.

How much we don't know is somehting we don't know.

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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-09 Thread Flammarion



On 9 Sep, 01:39, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

1. Computationalism in general associates that consciousness with a
  specific comptuer programme, programme C let's say.
2. Let us combine that with the further claim that programme C
  causes cosnciousness, somehow leveraging the physical causality of the
  hardware it is running on.
3. A corrolary of that is that running programme C will always
  cause the same effect.
4. Running a programme on hardware is a physical process with
  physical effects.
5. It is in the nature of causality that the same kind of cause
  produces the same kind of effects-- that is, causaliy attaches to
  types not tokens.
6. Running a programme on hardware will cause physical effects, and
  these will be determined by the kind of physical hardware. (Valve
  computers will generate heat, cogwheel computers will generate noise,
  etc).
7. Therefore, running programme C on different kinds of hardware
  will not produce a uniform effect as required by 1.
8. Programmes do not have a physical typology: they are not natural
  kinds. In that sense they are abstract. (Arguably, that is not as
  abstract as the square root of two, since they still have physical
  tokens. There may be more than one kind or level of abstraction).
9. Conclusion: even running programmes are not apt to cause
  consciousness. They are still too abstract.

 What you say above seems pretty much in sympathy with the reductio
 arguments based on arbitrariness of implementation.

It is strictly an argument against the claim that
computation causes consciousness , as opposed
to the claim that mental states are identical to computational
states.


 As you say above consciousness might depend on specific properties of
 hardware, of matter.  If so, this would demand an explicitly physical
 theory of mind, and such a 'Searlian' project would consequently seek
 to associate a specific phenomenal state with specific physical
 events.  But CTM is not engaged on such a project; in fact it entails
 the opposite conclusion: i.e. by stipulating its type-token identities
 purely functionally it requires that a homogeneous phenomenal state
 must somehow be associated with a teeming plurality of heterogeneous
 physical states.

It doesn't suggest that any mental state can be associated with any
phsycial
state.

It has been accused of overdoing  Multiple Realisability, but MR
can be underdone as well.

 Various arguments - Olympia, MGA, the Chinese Room etc. - seek to
 expose the myriad physical implausibilities consequential on such
 implementation independence.  But the root of all this is that CTM
 makes impossible at the outset any possibility of linking a phenomenal
 state to any unique, fully-explicated physical reduction.

That's probably a good thing. We want to be able to say that
two people with fine-grained differences in their brain structure
can both be (for instance) apprehensiveness.

 If nothing
 physical can in principle be ruled out as an explanation for
 experience,

That isn't an implication of CTM. CTM can regard computers as
a small subset of physical systems, and conscious computers as
a small subset of computers.

 no uniquely-justified physical explanation need - or in
 practice could - be explicated.

I don't think unique justification is a requirement

The detailed implausibilities
 variously invoked all fall out of this.


 So if a physical theory of mind is what is needed, CTM would seem to
 fail even as a candidate because its arbitrariness with respect to
 physical realisation renders it incapable of grounding consciousness
 in any specific fundamental physical reduction.

MR is not complete arbitrariness.

 Indeed defences of
 functionalism against its various critics never cite any physical
 grounds for the plausibility of conscious supervenience on the
 physical composition of, say, the Chinese room, but focus instead on
 defending the functional relevance of various features of the
 experimental setup.  Hence, without an explicitly physical, as opposed
 to functional, criterion for what counts as a 'physical' explanation,
 it is hard to see how CTM is compatible with any intelligible notion
 of materialism.

It is compatible with materialism because brains and computers
are material. If CTM had the implication that one material
system could realise more than one computation, then there
would be a conflict with the phsyical supervenience principle.

But CTM only has the implication that one computation
system could be realised more on more than one
material system.


Indeed, its success could only be in direct
 opposition to the principles of materialist reductive theory.

I don't think that follows at all.

 Isn't
 that a reasonable conclusion?

 David


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Re: Dreaming On

2009-09-11 Thread Flammarion



On 10 Sep, 14:56, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 2009/9/9 Flammarion peterdjo...@yahoo.com:

  What you say above seems pretty much in sympathy with the reductio
  arguments based on arbitrariness of implementation.

  It is strictly an argument against the claim that
  computation causes consciousness , as opposed
  to the claim that mental states are identical to computational
  states.

 I'm not sure I see what distinction you're making.  If as you say the
 realisation of computation in a physical system doesn't cause
 consciousness, that would entail that no physically-realised
 computation could be identical to any mental state.

That doesn't follow because causation and identity are different
The realisation could be consciousness (fire IS combustion)
without causing it (fire CAUSES smoke but it not smoke)

 This is what
 follows if one accepts the argument from MGA or Olympia that
 consciousness does not attach to physical states qua computatio.

I find them both quite contestable

  But CTM is not engaged on such a project; in fact it entails
  the opposite conclusion: i.e. by stipulating its type-token identities
  purely functionally it requires that a homogeneous phenomenal state
  must somehow be associated with a teeming plurality of heterogeneous
  physical states.

  It doesn't suggest that any mental state can be associated with any
  phsycial
  state.

 It doesn't need to say that to be obscure as a physical theory.  The
 point is that it can ex hypothesi say nothing remotely physically
 illuminating about what causes a mental state.  To say that it results
 whenever a physical system implements a specific computation is to say
 nothing physical about that system other than to insist that it is
 'physical'.


..and it implements a certain computation. That's kind of the point.
It is not a criticism of the CTM that it doesn't work like
a reductive physcial theory: it;s not suppposed to be.
It just supposed to be a phsycialist theory that doesn't have ghosts
in the machine

  It has been accused of overdoing  Multiple Realisability, but MR
  can be underdone as well.

 I agree.  Nonetheless, when two states are functionally equivalent one
 can still say what it is about them that is physically relevant.  For
 example, in driving from A to B it is functionally irrelevant to my
 experience whether my car is fuelled by petrol or diesel.  But there
 is no ambiguity about the physical details of my car trip or precisely
 how either fuel contributes to this effect.


One can say what it is about physical systems that explains
its ability to realise a certain computation. One can't say that
there is anything that makes it exclusively able to. Equally
one can explain various ways of getting from A to B, but
one can't argue that there is only one possible way.



  Various arguments - Olympia, MGA, the Chinese Room etc. - seek to
  expose the myriad physical implausibilities consequential on such
  implementation independence.  But the root of all this is that CTM
  makes impossible at the outset any possibility of linking a phenomenal
  state to any unique, fully-explicated physical reduction.

  That's probably a good thing. We want to be able to say that
  two people with fine-grained differences in their brain structure
  can both be (for instance) apprehensiveness.

 Yes, I agree.  But if we're after a physical theory, we also want to
 be able to give in either case a clear physical account of their
 apprehensiveness, which would include a physical justification of why
 the fine-grained differences make no difference at the level of
 experience.

THat would be because they make no computational difference,
if CTM is correct.

  If nothing
  physical can in principle be ruled out as an explanation for
  experience,

  That isn't an implication of CTM. CTM can regard computers as
  a small subset of physical systems, and conscious computers as
  a small subset of computers.

 Yes, but we needn't push nothing physical to the extent of random
 association to make the point at issue.  The relevant point is that,
 in picking out the subset of physical systems solely qua computatio,
 no kind of physical realisation is capable of being ruled out in
 principle.  That is unproblematic in the usual case because our
 interest is restricted to the computational output of such systems,
 and we are unconcerned by the physical details that occasion this.
 But if we are seeking a physical explanation of consciousness, then it
 is precisely the coupling of the physical process and the mental
 process which requires explication in a physical theory, and this is
 now obscured from any general resolution by the computational posit.

Obscured? It goes in two stages. Physical-.computational and
computational-mental.
Beyond that, your objectio to CTM seems to be (again) that it is not
reductive physicalism.

  no uniquely-justified physical explanation need - or in
  practice could - be explicated.

  I

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