> Sent: Friday, January 23, 2004 9:23 AM
> To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Subject: Re: probabilities & measures & computable universes
>
>
> Are probabilities always and necessarily positive-definite?
>
> I'm asking this because there is a thread, started by Dirac
> a
On Fri, Jan 23, 2004 at 09:04:20PM -0800, Hal Finney wrote:
> Do you think it would come out differently with a universal distribution?
There are an infinite number of universal distributions. Some of them
assign greater probability to even integers, some of them assign greater
probability to od
Juergen Schmidhuber writes:
> What is the probability of an integer being, say,
> a square? This question does not make sense without
> a prior probability distribution on the integers.
>
> This prior cannot be uniform. Try to find one!
> Under _any_ distribution some integers must be
> more likel
Are probabilities always and necessarily positive-definite?
I'm asking this because there is a thread, started by Dirac
and Feynman, saying the only difference between the classical
and quantum cases is that in the former we assume the probabilities
are positive-definite.
Thus, speaking of MWI,
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