Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-26 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi John,

On 24 Mar 2012, at 21:05, John Mikes wrote:

Bruno, I did not branch out into the 1st line of my 1st quote of  
your sentence.
Not that 2^16 is 'a' number, but parallel gives the idea of  
identicity (at least in main qualia) which are (both) human talk.  
(Of course that's what we can do).


Parallel world means only quantum superposition. It emphasizes the  
fact that superposition is contagious through interaction.





I am glad that you agreed with my (generalized!) remark.
Now: to your question:
  - Which logics? Classical logic? -
Any one you may call 'logic(s?)' in today's HUMAN thinking.


Why humans? Why not mammals, or machines, or divine entities? Humans  
are not the only one entities suffering from limitations.




It is beyond our capabilities to even imagine (more sophisticated)  
ways of thinking, which does not mean an exclusion of such.


But this is too vague. It seems to apply to all theories.



I did not visualize a change in logic, simply assumed the  
possibility of thinking differently (not necessarily using OUR math  
terms). (Cf: Cohen-Stewart's Zarathustrans - a fictional reference).


But may be it is a human limitation to believe that their logic is  
human.
By the way we define machine, they are machine when viewed by human or  
by non-human, so with comp we can grasp better the human limitations  
by studying the machine's limitations.






 - we have to take our theories seriously, -
Not in my agnosticism.


You know it is hard to be more agnostic than me :)
But it is because I am agnostic that I remind that theories are  
temporary belief, and that we can progress only by taking them  
seriously (which does NOT mean true!!!), so we can at least one day  
change our mind on them.




In conventional sciences a 'theory' is taken seriously upon  
assumptions based on other (accepted?) theories (calculations?). To  
let your ideas wander and look for yes/no consequences (within  
today's knowledge) is a game of creativity, not established science.


What do you mean by established science? I don't believe that make  
sense. Actually I don't believe in Science, only in scientific  
attitude, which, basically is only modesty.



This is how I ended up with many of my patents. For the same reason  
do I NOT call my 'Plenitude-story' of generating universes a  
NARRATIVE, not a theory.


I don't see the problem with the word theory, but you can call that  
a narrative if you prefer. You are right that the popular media  
confuse theory and knowledge, but for me it is a reason to use the  
right word in the correct way. If not, it is like with the religious  
notion, you encourage the use of the word by those who missed the  
idea. I think.


Bruno



On Sat, Mar 24, 2012 at 5:12 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 23 Mar 2012, at 17:34, John Mikes wrote:


Bruno:
thanks for the considerate reply. Let me pick some of your sentences:

  2^16 parallel universes needed to implement  the   
quantum  superposition  -  used in Shor's quantum algorithm  
to find the prime factors of numbers.


I would not limit the numbers and fix the quality of future  
development.


Me neither.


Nor do I take it for granted that today's logic in math  
(arithmetics) will hold.


Which logics? Classical logic?
In which logic will you describe the change of logics.
Not sure that I can give meaning to your sentence here, John. You  
seem to believe in some absolute logic to make sense of change in  
logic.






I have few doubts that quantum computers will appear, but I am  
quite uncertain if it is for this century of for the next  
millennium.


Ihave more faith in 'the new': maybe that will be something better  
than today's uncertainty-riding quantum idea.


We can only *assume* theories, and then we can hope we will see them  
to be refuted. That's how we learn. But this means we have to take  
our theories seriously, which does not mean true.


Bruno




 John M
On Thu, Mar 15, 2012 at 1:41 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 14 Mar 2012, at 21:41, John Mikes wrote:


Brent and Bruno:
you both have statements in this endless discussion about  
processing ideas of quantum computers.
I would be happy to read about ONE that works, not a s a  
potentiality, but as a real tool, the function of which is  
understood and APPLIED. (Here, on Earth).


It is an *immense* technical challenge. Up to now, a quantum  
circuit has only succeeded in showing that 15 is equal to 3*5,  
which might seems ridiculous for todays applied computing domains,  
but which is still an extraordinary technical prowess as it  
involves handling of the 2^16 parallel universes needed to  
implement the quantum superposition used in Shor's quantum  
algorithm to find the prime factors of numbers.


The amazing thing is that all the arguments of unfeasibility of  
quantum computers have been overcome by quantum software, like the  
quantum 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-24 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 23 Mar 2012, at 17:34, John Mikes wrote:


Bruno:
thanks for the considerate reply. Let me pick some of your sentences:

  2^16 parallel universes needed to implement  the   
quantum  superposition  -  used in Shor's quantum algorithm  
to find the prime factors of numbers.


I would not limit the numbers and fix the quality of future  
development.


Me neither.


Nor do I take it for granted that today's logic in math  
(arithmetics) will hold.


Which logics? Classical logic?
In which logic will you describe the change of logics.
Not sure that I can give meaning to your sentence here, John. You seem  
to believe in some absolute logic to make sense of change in logic.






I have few doubts that quantum computers will appear, but I am  
quite uncertain if it is for this century of for the next  
millennium.


Ihave more faith in 'the new': maybe that will be something better  
than today's uncertainty-riding quantum idea.


We can only *assume* theories, and then we can hope we will see them  
to be refuted. That's how we learn. But this means we have to take our  
theories seriously, which does not mean true.


Bruno




 John M
On Thu, Mar 15, 2012 at 1:41 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 14 Mar 2012, at 21:41, John Mikes wrote:


Brent and Bruno:
you both have statements in this endless discussion about  
processing ideas of quantum computers.
I would be happy to read about ONE that works, not a s a  
potentiality, but as a real tool, the function of which is  
understood and APPLIED. (Here, on Earth).


It is an *immense* technical challenge. Up to now, a quantum circuit  
has only succeeded in showing that 15 is equal to 3*5, which might  
seems ridiculous for todays applied computing domains, but which is  
still an extraordinary technical prowess as it involves handling of  
the 2^16 parallel universes needed to implement the quantum  
superposition used in Shor's quantum algorithm to find the prime  
factors of numbers.


The amazing thing is that all the arguments of unfeasibility of  
quantum computers have been overcome by quantum software, like the  
quantum error corrections, and the topological fault tolerant  
quantum machinery.


I have few doubts that quantum computers will appear, but I am quite  
uncertain if it is for this century of for the next millennium. But  
bigger quantum circuits will emerge this century, and quantum  
cryptographic technic might already exist, but that's a military  
secret, and a banker secret :).


There is also some prospect to discover quantum machinery operating  
in nature. I read some times ago, that a super-heavy object has been  
discovered which structure seemed to have to be unstable for much  
physicists and some have elaborated models in which quarks are  
exploiting a quantum-computational game to attain stability.


And then, to make happy Stephen, the not very plausible yet not  
entirely excluded despite what Tegmark argues possibility that life  
exploits quantum algorithm. See for example the two following papers  
referred to in my today's mail:


1) Clark, K.B. (2010). Bose-Einstein condensates form in heuristics  
learned by ciliates deciding to signal 'social' commitments.  
BioSystems, 99(3), 167-178. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/19883726


2) Clark, K.B. (2010). Arrhenius-kinetics evidence for quantum  
tunneling in microbial social decision rates. Communicative   
Integtrative Biology, 3(6), 540-544. http://www.landesbioscience.com/journals/cib/article/12842


I am skeptical to be franc. Not too much time to dig on this for  
now. The second is freely available. if someone want to comment on  
it, please do.


Bruno





On Mon, Mar 12, 2012 at 10:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net  
wrote:

On 3/12/2012 7:16 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 3/12/2012 10:00 PM, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/11/2012 11:41 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:


An Evil Wizard could pop into my vicinity and banish me to  
the Nether plane! A magical act, if real and just part of a  
story, is an event that violates some conservation law. I don't  
see what else would constitute magic... My point is that Harry  
Potterisms would introduce cul-de-sacs that would totally screw  
up the statistics and measures, so they have to be banished.


Because otherwise things would be screwed up?

Chain-wise consistency and concurrency rules would prevent these  
pathologies, but to get them we have to consider multiple and  
disjoint observers and not just shared 1p as such implicitly  
assume an absolute frame of reference. Basically we need both  
conservation laws and general covariance. Do we obtain that  
naturally from COMP? That's an open question.


You seem to be begging the question: We need regularity,  
otherwise things wouldn't be regular.


No, you are dodging the real question: How is the measure  
defined?


The obvious way is that all non-self-contradictory events are  
equally likely. But 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-24 Thread John Mikes
Bruno, I did not branch out into the 1st line of my 1st quote of your
sentence.
Not that 2^16 is 'a' number, but parallel gives the idea of identicity
(at least in main qualia) which are (both) human talk. (Of course that's
what we can do).
I am glad that you agreed with my (generalized!) remark.
Now: to your question:
 *  - Which logics? Classical logic? -*
Any one you may call 'logic(s?)' in today's HUMAN thinking.* *It is beyond
our capabilities to even imagine (more sophisticated) ways of thinking,
which does not mean an exclusion of such. I did not visualize a change in
logic, simply assumed the possibility of thinking differently (not
necessarily using OUR math terms). (Cf: Cohen-Stewart's Zarathustrans - a
fictional reference).

 *- we have to take our theories seriously, -*
Not in my agnosticism. In conventional sciences a 'theory' is taken
seriously upon assumptions based on other (accepted?) theories
(calculations?). To let your ideas wander and look for yes/no consequences
(within today's knowledge) is a game of creativity, not established
science. This is how I ended up with many of my patents. For the same
reason do I NOT call my 'Plenitude-story' of generating universes a *
NARRATIVE*, not a theory.

JohnM


On Sat, Mar 24, 2012 at 5:12 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


  On 23 Mar 2012, at 17:34, John Mikes wrote:

  Bruno:
 thanks for the considerate reply. Let me pick some of your sentences:

   *2^16 parallel universes needed
 to implement  the  quantum  superposition**  -  used in Shor's
 quantum algorithm to find the prime factors of numbers*.

 I would not limit the numbers and fix the quality of future development.


 Me neither.


  Nor do I take it for granted that today's logic in math (arithmetics)
 will hold.


 Which logics? Classical logic?
 In which logic will you describe the change of logics.
 Not sure that I can give meaning to your sentence here, John. You seem to
 believe in some absolute logic to make sense of change in logic.




 *I have few doubts that quantum computers will appear, but I am
 quite uncertain if it is for this century of for the next millennium
 *.

 Ihave more faith in 'the new': maybe that will be something better than
 today's uncertainty-riding quantum idea.


 We can only *assume* theories, and then we can hope we will see them to be
 refuted. That's how we learn. But this means we have to take our theories
 seriously, which does not mean true.

 Bruno



  John M
 On Thu, Mar 15, 2012 at 1:41 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


  On 14 Mar 2012, at 21:41, John Mikes wrote:

  Brent and Bruno:
 you both have statements in this endless discussion about processing
 ideas of quantum computers.
 I would be happy to read about ONE that works, not a s a potentiality,
 but as a real tool, the function of which is understood and APPLIED. (Here,
 on Earth).


 It is an *immense* technical challenge. Up to now, a quantum circuit has
 only succeeded in showing that 15 is equal to 3*5, which might seems
 ridiculous for todays applied computing domains, but which is still an
 extraordinary technical prowess as it involves handling of the 2^16
 parallel universes needed to implement the quantum superposition used in
 Shor's quantum algorithm to find the prime factors of numbers.

 The amazing thing is that all the arguments of unfeasibility of quantum
 computers have been overcome by quantum software, like the quantum error
 corrections, and the topological fault tolerant quantum machinery.

 I have few doubts that quantum computers will appear, but I am quite
 uncertain if it is for this century of for the next millennium. But bigger
 quantum circuits will emerge this century, and quantum cryptographic
 technic might already exist, but that's a military secret, and a banker
 secret :).

 There is also some prospect to discover quantum machinery operating in
 nature. I read some times ago, that a super-heavy object has been
 discovered which structure seemed to have to be unstable for much
 physicists and some have elaborated models in which quarks are exploiting a
 quantum-computational game to attain stability.

 And then, to make happy Stephen, the not very plausible yet not entirely
 excluded despite what Tegmark argues possibility that life exploits
 quantum algorithm. See for example the two following papers referred to in
 my today's mail:

  1) Clark, K.B. (2010). Bose-Einstein condensates form in heuristics
 learned by ciliates deciding to signal 'social' commitments. BioSystems,
 99(3), 167-178. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/19883726

 2) Clark, K.B. (2010). Arrhenius-kinetics evidence for quantum tunneling
 in microbial social decision rates. Communicative  Integtrative Biology,
 3(6), 540-544. http://www.landesbioscience.com/journals/cib/article/12842

 I am skeptical to be franc. Not too much time to dig on this for now. The
 second is freely available. if someone want to 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-23 Thread John Mikes
Bruno:
thanks for the considerate reply. Let me pick some of your sentences:

  *2^16 parallel universes needed
to implement  the  quantum  superposition**  -  used in Shor's
quantum algorithm to find the prime factors of numbers*.

I would not limit the numbers and fix the quality of future development.
Nor do I take it for granted that today's logic in math (arithmetics) will
hold.

*I have few doubts that quantum computers will appear, but I am
quite uncertain if it is for this century of for the next millennium
*.

Ihave more faith in 'the new': maybe that will be something better than
today's uncertainty-riding quantum idea.

 John M
On Thu, Mar 15, 2012 at 1:41 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


  On 14 Mar 2012, at 21:41, John Mikes wrote:

  Brent and Bruno:
 you both have statements in this endless discussion about processing ideas
 of quantum computers.
 I would be happy to read about ONE that works, not a s a potentiality, but
 as a real tool, the function of which is understood and APPLIED. (Here, on
 Earth).


 It is an *immense* technical challenge. Up to now, a quantum circuit has
 only succeeded in showing that 15 is equal to 3*5, which might seems
 ridiculous for todays applied computing domains, but which is still an
 extraordinary technical prowess as it involves handling of the 2^16
 parallel universes needed to implement the quantum superposition used in
 Shor's quantum algorithm to find the prime factors of numbers.

 The amazing thing is that all the arguments of unfeasibility of quantum
 computers have been overcome by quantum software, like the quantum error
 corrections, and the topological fault tolerant quantum machinery.

 I have few doubts that quantum computers will appear, but I am quite
 uncertain if it is for this century of for the next millennium. But bigger
 quantum circuits will emerge this century, and quantum cryptographic
 technic might already exist, but that's a military secret, and a banker
 secret :).

 There is also some prospect to discover quantum machinery operating in
 nature. I read some times ago, that a super-heavy object has been
 discovered which structure seemed to have to be unstable for much
 physicists and some have elaborated models in which quarks are exploiting a
 quantum-computational game to attain stability.

 And then, to make happy Stephen, the not very plausible yet not entirely
 excluded despite what Tegmark argues possibility that life exploits
 quantum algorithm. See for example the two following papers referred to in
 my today's mail:

  1) Clark, K.B. (2010). Bose-Einstein condensates form in heuristics
 learned by ciliates deciding to signal 'social' commitments. BioSystems,
 99(3), 167-178. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/19883726

 2) Clark, K.B. (2010). Arrhenius-kinetics evidence for quantum tunneling
 in microbial social decision rates. Communicative  Integtrative Biology,
 3(6), 540-544. http://www.landesbioscience.com/journals/cib/article/12842

 I am skeptical to be franc. Not too much time to dig on this for now. The
 second is freely available. if someone want to comment on it, please do.

 Bruno




 On Mon, Mar 12, 2012 at 10:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 3/12/2012 7:16 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

 On 3/12/2012 10:00 PM, meekerdb wrote:

 On 3/11/2012 11:41 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

 An Evil Wizard could pop into my vicinity and banish me to the Nether
 plane! A magical act, if real and just part of a story, is an event that
 violates some conservation law. I don't see what else would constitute
 magic... My point is that Harry Potterisms would introduce cul-de-sacs that
 would totally screw up the statistics and measures, so they have to be
 banished.


 Because otherwise things would be screwed up?

 Chain-wise consistency and concurrency rules would prevent these
 pathologies, but to get them we have to consider multiple and disjoint
 observers and not just shared 1p as such implicitly assume an absolute
 frame of reference. Basically we need both conservation laws and general
 covariance. Do we obtain that naturally from COMP? That's an open question.


 You seem to be begging the question: We need regularity, otherwise things
 wouldn't be regular.


 No, you are dodging the real question: How is the measure defined?


 The obvious way is that all non-self-contradictory events are equally
 likely. But that's hypothesized, not defined.  I'm not sure why you are
 asking how it's defined.  The usual definition is an assignment of a number
 in [0,1] to every member of a Borel set such that they satisfies
 Kolmogorov's axioms.


 If it is imposed by fiat, say so and defend the claim. Why is it so hard
 to get you to consider multiple observers and consider the question as to
 how exactly do they interact? Al of the discussion that I have seen so far
 considers a single observer and abstractions about other people. The most I
 am getting is the word 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-23 Thread Stephen P. King

On 3/23/2012 12:34 PM, John Mikes wrote:

Bruno:
thanks for the considerate reply. Let me pick some of your sentences:
/2^16 parallel universes needed 
to implement  the  quantum  superposition//  -  used in Shor's 
quantum algorithm to find the prime factors of numbers/.
I would not limit the numbers and fix the quality of future 
development. Nor do I take it for granted that today's logic in math 
(arithmetics) will hold.


Hi John,

Did you note that nowhere was it mentioned in Bruno's comment that 
the 2^16 unverses had an upper limit of the time that it would take to 
perform the implementation! This is the escape clause for his claim. 
What is interesting about this multiple parallel universe idea is that 
it seems to me that we could make the time and qubit limit of any _one_ 
typical universe could be made arbitrarily small by putting a large 
quantum computer on a very fast star-ship and travelling at velocities 
that approach c. Since the Q-computer on the Enterprise would have an 
arbitrarily long time to implement its side of the Qubit's unitary 
evolution as some from an observer that is watchign the Enterprise on 
its long range scanners. The neat thing is that for Spock the 
computation would output its answer in no time at all IF and Only IF it 
was able to remain coupled to all those other parallel universes.
This scenario, set on the bridge of the Starship Enterprise, seems 
likely until you look into what acceleration does to quantum 
entanglement.it is well known that any acceleration spoils entanglement 
in an interesting way.


I apologize for my wandering off topic but I strange idea occurred 
to me as I was reading your post...


Onward!

Stephen


/I have few doubts that quantum computers will appear, but I am 
quite uncertain if it is for this century of for the next 
millennium/.
Ihave more faith in 'the new': maybe that will be something better 
than today's uncertainty-riding quantum idea.

 John M
On Thu, Mar 15, 2012 at 1:41 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be 
mailto:marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:



On 14 Mar 2012, at 21:41, John Mikes wrote:


Brent and Bruno:
you both have statements in this endless discussion about
processing ideas of quantum computers.
I would be happy to read about ONE that works, not a s a
potentiality, but as a real tool, the function of which is
understood and APPLIED. (Here, on Earth).


It is an *immense* technical challenge. Up to now, a quantum
circuit has only succeeded in showing that 15 is equal to 3*5,
which might seems ridiculous for todays applied computing domains,
but which is still an extraordinary technical prowess as it
involves handling of the 2^16 parallel universes needed to
implement the quantum superposition used in Shor's quantum
algorithm to find the prime factors of numbers.

The amazing thing is that all the arguments of unfeasibility of
quantum computers have been overcome by quantum software, like the
quantum error corrections, and the topological fault tolerant
quantum machinery.

I have few doubts that quantum computers will appear, but I am
quite uncertain if it is for this century of for the next
millennium. But bigger quantum circuits will emerge this century,
and quantum cryptographic technic might already exist, but that's
a military secret, and a banker secret :).

There is also some prospect to discover quantum machinery
operating in nature. I read some times ago, that a super-heavy
object has been discovered which structure seemed to have to be
unstable for much physicists and some have elaborated models in
which quarks are exploiting a quantum-computational game to attain
stability.

And then, to make happy Stephen, the not very plausible yet not
entirely excluded despite what Tegmark argues possibility that
life exploits quantum algorithm. See for example the two following
papers referred to in my today's mail:

1) Clark, K.B. (2010). Bose-Einstein condensates form in
heuristics learned by ciliates deciding to signal 'social'
commitments. BioSystems, 99(3), 167-178.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/19883726
2) Clark, K.B. (2010). Arrhenius-kinetics evidence for quantum
tunneling in microbial social decision rates. Communicative 
Integtrative Biology, 3(6), 540-544.
http://www.landesbioscience.com/journals/cib/article/12842

I am skeptical to be franc. Not too much time to dig on this for
now. The second is freely available. if someone want to comment on
it, please do.

Bruno





On Mon, Mar 12, 2012 at 10:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 3/12/2012 7:16 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/12/2012 10:00 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 11:41 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

An Evil Wizard could pop into my vicinity and banish
  

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-15 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 14 Mar 2012, at 21:41, John Mikes wrote:


Brent and Bruno:
you both have statements in this endless discussion about processing  
ideas of quantum computers.
I would be happy to read about ONE that works, not a s a  
potentiality, but as a real tool, the function of which is  
understood and APPLIED. (Here, on Earth).


It is an *immense* technical challenge. Up to now, a quantum circuit  
has only succeeded in showing that 15 is equal to 3*5, which might  
seems ridiculous for todays applied computing domains, but which is  
still an extraordinary technical prowess as it involves handling of  
the 2^16 parallel universes needed to implement the quantum  
superposition used in Shor's quantum algorithm to find the prime  
factors of numbers.


The amazing thing is that all the arguments of unfeasibility of  
quantum computers have been overcome by quantum software, like the  
quantum error corrections, and the topological fault tolerant quantum  
machinery.


I have few doubts that quantum computers will appear, but I am quite  
uncertain if it is for this century of for the next millennium. But  
bigger quantum circuits will emerge this century, and quantum  
cryptographic technic might already exist, but that's a military  
secret, and a banker secret :).


There is also some prospect to discover quantum machinery operating in  
nature. I read some times ago, that a super-heavy object has been  
discovered which structure seemed to have to be unstable for much  
physicists and some have elaborated models in which quarks are  
exploiting a quantum-computational game to attain stability.


And then, to make happy Stephen, the not very plausible yet not  
entirely excluded despite what Tegmark argues possibility that life  
exploits quantum algorithm. See for example the two following papers  
referred to in my today's mail:


1) Clark, K.B. (2010). Bose-Einstein condensates form in heuristics  
learned by ciliates deciding to signal 'social' commitments.  
BioSystems, 99(3), 167-178. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/19883726


2) Clark, K.B. (2010). Arrhenius-kinetics evidence for quantum  
tunneling in microbial social decision rates. Communicative   
Integtrative Biology, 3(6), 540-544. http://www.landesbioscience.com/journals/cib/article/12842


I am skeptical to be franc. Not too much time to dig on this for now.  
The second is freely available. if someone want to comment on it,  
please do.


Bruno





On Mon, Mar 12, 2012 at 10:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net  
wrote:

On 3/12/2012 7:16 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 3/12/2012 10:00 PM, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/11/2012 11:41 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:


An Evil Wizard could pop into my vicinity and banish me to  
the Nether plane! A magical act, if real and just part of a  
story, is an event that violates some conservation law. I don't  
see what else would constitute magic... My point is that Harry  
Potterisms would introduce cul-de-sacs that would totally screw  
up the statistics and measures, so they have to be banished.


Because otherwise things would be screwed up?

Chain-wise consistency and concurrency rules would prevent these  
pathologies, but to get them we have to consider multiple and  
disjoint observers and not just shared 1p as such implicitly  
assume an absolute frame of reference. Basically we need both  
conservation laws and general covariance. Do we obtain that  
naturally from COMP? That's an open question.


You seem to be begging the question: We need regularity, otherwise  
things wouldn't be regular.


No, you are dodging the real question: How is the measure  
defined?


The obvious way is that all non-self-contradictory events are  
equally likely. But that's hypothesized, not defined.  I'm not sure  
why you are asking how it's defined.  The usual definition is an  
assignment of a number in [0,1] to every member of a Borel set such  
that they satisfies Kolmogorov's axioms.



If it is imposed by fiat, say so and defend the claim. Why is it so  
hard to get you to consider multiple observers and consider the  
question as to how exactly do they interact? Al of the discussion  
that I have seen so far considers a single observer and  
abstractions about other people. The most I am getting is the word  
plurality. Is this difficult? Really?


It's difficult because people are trying to explain 'other people'  
and taking only their own consciousness as given.  If you're going  
to assume other people, why not assume physics too?


Brent

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-14 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Mar 2012, at 08:04, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 3/12/2012 2:53 AM, acw wrote:

On 3/12/2012 05:43, Stephen P. King wrote:

Hi,

Could it be that we are tacitly assuming that our notion of  
Virtual is
such that there always exists a standard what is the Real  
version? If
it is not possible to tell if a given object of experience is real  
or

virtual, why do we default to it being virtual, as if it was somehow
possible to compare the object in question with an unassailably  
real

version? As I see it, if we can somehow show that a given object of
experience is the _best possible_ simulation (modulo available
resources) then it is real, as a better or more real  
simulation of

it is impossible to generate. Our physical world is 'real' simply
because there does not exist a better simulation of it.

Sure, given a mathematical ontology, real is just the structure  
you exist in - an indexical. This real might be limited in some way  
(for example in COMP, you cannot help but get some indeterminacy  
like MW)- a newtonian physics simulation might be real for those  
living in it and which are embedded in it, although if this would  
really work without any indeterminacy, I'm skeptical of.


I should have been more precise, when I said VR, I didn't merely  
mean a good digital physics simulation where the observer's entire  
body+brain is contained within, I meant something more high-level,  
think of Second Life or Blocks World or some other similar  
simulation done 1000 years from now with much more computational  
resources. The main difference between VR and physical-real is that  
one contains a body+brain embedded in that physical-real world (as  
matter), thus physical-real is also a self-contained consistent  
mathematical structure, while VR has some external component which  
prevents a form of physical self-awareness (you can't have brain  
surgery in a VR, at least not in the sense we do have in the real  
world). The main difference here is that the VR can be influenced  
by a higher level at which the VR itself runs, while a physical- 
real structure is completely self-contained.


Hi!

   I am mot exactly sure of what you mean by indexical. As to  
brain surgery in VR, why not? All that is needed is rules in the  
program that control the 1p experience of content to some states in  
game structures. The point is that if we are considering brains-in- 
vasts problems we need to also consider the other minds problems.  
We should not be analyzing this from a strict one person situation.  
You and I have different experiences up to and including the  
something that is like being Stephen as different from something  
that is like to being ACW. If we where internally identical minds  
then why would be even be having this conversation? We would  
literally know each others thought by merely having them. This is  
why I argue that plural shared 1p is a weakness in COMP. We have to  
have disjointness at least.


Comp is the problem, and the conceptual tool to formulate the problem,  
not the solution. Comp reduces the mind-body problem to a body  
problem. That's the main point. Comp gives only the general shape of  
the solution, in the form of a MW interpretation by numbers of  
arithmetic, and its measure problem on the first person plural  
indeterminacy. Then if you accept the classical theory of knowledge,  
you can already derived the propositional physics, and see the hints  
for the other minds problem solution, and that solution is close to  
Girard's linear logic, or some work of Abramski.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-14 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Mar 2012, at 09:49, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2012/3/12 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net
On 3/12/2012 3:49 AM, acw wrote:
On 3/12/2012 08:04, Stephen P. King wrote:
On 3/12/2012 2:53 AM, acw wrote:
On 3/12/2012 05:43, Stephen P. King wrote:
Hi,

Could it be that we are tacitly assuming that our notion of Virtual is
such that there always exists a standard what is the Real version?  
If

it is not possible to tell if a given object of experience is real or
virtual, why do we default to it being virtual, as if it was somehow
possible to compare the object in question with an unassailably real
version? As I see it, if we can somehow show that a given object of
experience is the _best possible_ simulation (modulo available
resources) then it is real, as a better or more real simulation of
it is impossible to generate. Our physical world is 'real' simply
because there does not exist a better simulation of it.

Sure, given a mathematical ontology, real is just the structure you
exist in - an indexical. This real might be limited in some way (for
example in COMP, you cannot help but get some indeterminacy like MW)-
a newtonian physics simulation might be real for those living in it
and which are embedded in it, although if this would really work
without any indeterminacy, I'm skeptical of.

I should have been more precise, when I said VR, I didn't merely mean
a good digital physics simulation where the observer's entire
body+brain is contained within, I meant something more high-level,
think of Second Life or Blocks World or some other similar
simulation done 1000 years from now with much more computational
resources. The main difference between VR and physical-real is that
one contains a body+brain embedded in that physical-real world (as
matter), thus physical-real is also a self-contained consistent
mathematical structure, while VR has some external component which
prevents a form of physical self-awareness (you can't have brain
surgery in a VR, at least not in the sense we do have in the real
world). The main difference here is that the VR can be influenced by a
higher level at which the VR itself runs, while a physical-real
structure is completely self-contained.

Hi!

I am mot exactly sure of what you mean by indexical.
Your current state, time, location, birth place, brain state, etc  
are indexicals. The (observed) laws of physics are also indexicals,  
unless you can show that either only one possible set of laws of  
physics is possible or you just assume that (for example, in a  
primary matter hypothesis).



As to brain
surgery in VR, why not? All that is needed is rules in the program  
that
control the 1p experience of content to some states in game  
structures.
Our brains are made of matter and if we change them, our experience  
changes. In a VR, the brain's implementation is assumed external to  
the VR, if not, it would be a digital physics simulation, which is a  
bit different (self-contained). It might be possible to change your  
brain within the VR if the right APIs and protocols are implemented,  
but the brain's computations are done externally to the VR physics  
simulation (at a different layer, for example, brain program is  
ran separately from physics simulation program) . There's some  
subtle details here - if the brain was computed entirely through the  
VR's physics, UDA would apply and you would get the VR's physics  
simulation's indeterminacy (no longer a simulation, but something  
existing on its own in the UD*), otherwise, the brain's  
implementation depends on the indeterminacy present at the upper  
layer and not of the VR's physics simulation. This is a subtle  
point, but there would be a difference in measure and experience  
between simulating the brain from a digital physics simulation and  
external to it. In our world, we have the very high confidence  
belief that our brains are made of matter and thus implemented at  
the same level as our reality. In a VR, we may assume the  
implementation of our brains as external to the VR's physics -  
experienced reality being different from mind's body (brain) reality.


Hi,

   Umm, this looks like you are making a difference between a  
situation where your P.o.V. os stuck 'in one's head and a P.o.V.  
where it is free to move about. Have you ever played a MMORPG game?  
These two situations are just a matter of the programs parameters...  
Again, what makes the virtual reality virtual? I claim that it is  
only because there is some other point of view or stance that is  
taken as real such that the virtual version is has fewer detail  
and degrees of freedom. If a sufficiently powerful computer can  
generate a simulation of a physical world, why can it not simulate  
brains in it as well? Some people think that minds are just  
something that the brain does, so why not have a single program  
generating all of it - brains and minds included?
   My problem is that I fail to see how the UD and 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-14 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Mar 2012, at 21:21, meekerdb wrote (to Stepehen King):


Stephen King:
   One thing that I have found in the last few days is that it is  
impossible to define the computational operations of deleting,  
copying and pasting onto/into topological manifolds unless one is  
willing to give up the invariance of genus and Betti numbering.  
Cutting and pasting seem to be absolutely necessary operations of  
computation


Why do you say that?  Quantum computers don't duplicate and don't  
erase.


Well, quantum computer can still duplicate classical information.
I could say more if your remember the combinators. They can be used to  
show that without duplication and erasing you lost Turing  
universality. You can recover it by allowing a minimal amount of  
duplication, which does not mean that you can duplicate anything.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-14 Thread meekerdb

On 3/14/2012 7:12 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 12 Mar 2012, at 21:21, meekerdb wrote (to Stepehen King):


Stephen King:
   One thing that I have found in the last few days is that it is impossible to define 
the computational operations of deleting, copying and pasting onto/into topological 
manifolds unless one is willing to give up the invariance of genus and Betti 
numbering. Cutting and pasting seem to be absolutely necessary operations of computation


Why do you say that?  Quantum computers don't duplicate and don't erase.


Well, quantum computer can still duplicate classical information.


Since the world in quantum classical information is only a statistical 
approximation.

I could say more if your remember the combinators. They can be used to show that without 
duplication and erasing you lost Turing universality. You can recover it by allowing a 
minimal amount of duplication, which does not mean that you can duplicate anything.


Hmm.  I thought quantum systems could be emulated by a UT.  How does the no-cloning 
theorem apply to the emulation?


Brent

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-14 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 14 Mar 2012, at 17:30, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/14/2012 7:12 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 12 Mar 2012, at 21:21, meekerdb wrote (to Stepehen King):


Stephen King:
   One thing that I have found in the last few days is that it is  
impossible to define the computational operations of deleting,  
copying and pasting onto/into topological manifolds unless one is  
willing to give up the invariance of genus and Betti numbering.  
Cutting and pasting seem to be absolutely necessary operations of  
computation


Why do you say that?  Quantum computers don't duplicate and don't  
erase.


Well, quantum computer can still duplicate classical information.


Since the world in quantum classical information is only a  
statistical approximation.


I don't think so. I think a quantum reality has the potential to  
manipulate relative classical data, basically when the quantum state  
is known relatively to the choice of some base. If not quantum  
computer would not been Turing universal. This has been shown by  
Benioff. The quantum computer is authentically turing universal.





I could say more if your remember the combinators. They can be used  
to show that without duplication and erasing you lost Turing  
universality. You can recover it by allowing a minimal amount of  
duplication, which does not mean that you can duplicate anything.


Hmm.  I thought quantum systems could be emulated by a UT.


They can. No problem, except a dramatic relative slow down. In comp  
too, to emulate a piece of matter, you have to dovetail on the whole  
UD* to get all decimals exact. in QM, you have to evaluate the  
universal wave.




How does the no-cloning theorem apply to the emulation?


Good question. If you emulate a piece of matter with a UT you have to  
emulate the many superpositions, and the observers, and the contagion  
of the superposition to the observers, and you will get that the  
emulated observers will realize that they cannot duplicate an  
arbitrary quantum state. Indeed, they cannot be aware of the entire  
quantum state they are part from. In The MWI, the non cloning is due  
to the fact that quantum states contain non accessible information of  
how the piece of matter behaves in parallel realities, or branch of  
the universal wave.


Likewise, with comp, the apparent primitive matter *is* the result  
of the 1-indeterminacy relative to your actual state, and this  
involves the whole UD*-infinite indeterminacy domain (like in step 7).  
That's not duplicable.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-14 Thread John Mikes
Brent and Bruno:
you both have statements in this endless discussion about processing ideas
of quantum computers.
I would be happy to read about ONE that works, not a s a potentiality, but
as a real tool, the function of which is understood and APPLIED. (Here, on
Earth).
John Mikes

On Mon, Mar 12, 2012 at 10:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 3/12/2012 7:16 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

 On 3/12/2012 10:00 PM, meekerdb wrote:

 On 3/11/2012 11:41 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

 An Evil Wizard could pop into my vicinity and banish me to the Nether
 plane! A magical act, if real and just part of a story, is an event that
 violates some conservation law. I don't see what else would constitute
 magic... My point is that Harry Potterisms would introduce cul-de-sacs that
 would totally screw up the statistics and measures, so they have to be
 banished.


 Because otherwise things would be screwed up?

 Chain-wise consistency and concurrency rules would prevent these
 pathologies, but to get them we have to consider multiple and disjoint
 observers and not just shared 1p as such implicitly assume an absolute
 frame of reference. Basically we need both conservation laws and general
 covariance. Do we obtain that naturally from COMP? That's an open question.


 You seem to be begging the question: We need regularity, otherwise things
 wouldn't be regular.


 No, you are dodging the real question: How is the measure defined?


 The obvious way is that all non-self-contradictory events are equally
 likely. But that's hypothesized, not defined.  I'm not sure why you are
 asking how it's defined.  The usual definition is an assignment of a number
 in [0,1] to every member of a Borel set such that they satisfies
 Kolmogorov's axioms.


 If it is imposed by fiat, say so and defend the claim. Why is it so hard
 to get you to consider multiple observers and consider the question as to
 how exactly do they interact? Al of the discussion that I have seen so far
 considers a single observer and abstractions about other people. The most I
 am getting is the word plurality. Is this difficult? Really?


 It's difficult because people are trying to explain 'other people' and
 taking only their own consciousness as given.  If you're going to assume
 other people, why not assume physics too?

 Brent

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread Stephen P. King

On 3/11/2012 11:47 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 8:03 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/11/2012 7:39 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 2:43 PM, acw wrote:

On 3/11/2012 21:44, R AM wrote:
This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about 
the whole

point of the exercise.

I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future content of
subjective experience is indeterminated? Although comp might seem 
to entail

100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?
3p indeterminacy in the form of the UD*, 1p determinacy from the 
perspective of those minds relative to bodies in the UD*.


However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be 
anything
at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we conclude 
that

comp is false?
You're basically presenting the White Rabbit problem here. I used 
to wonder if that is indeed the case, but after considering it 
further, it doesn't seem to be: your 1p is identified with some 
particular abstract machine - that part is mostly determinate and 
deterministic (or quasi-deterministic if you allow some leeway as 
to what constitutes persona identity) in its behavior, but below 
that substitution level, anything can change, as long as that 
machine is implemented correctly/consistently. If the level is low 
enough and most of the machines implementing the lower layers that 
eventually implement our mind correspond to one world (such as 
ours), that would imply reasonably stable experience and some 
MWI-like laws of physics - not white noise experiences. That is to 
say that if we don't experience white noise, statistically our 
experiences will be stable - this does not mean that we won't have 
really unusual jumps or changes in laws-of-physics or experience 
when our measure is greatly reduced (such as the current 
statistically winning machines no longer being able to implement 
your mind - 3p death from the point of view of others).


This implies that our measure is strongly correlated with the 
regularity of physics.  I'm not sure you can show that, but if it's 
true it means that physics is fundamental to our existence, even if 
physics can be explained by the UD.  Only worlds with extremely 
consistent physics can support consciousness (which seems unlikely 
to me).


Brent

Hi Brent,

I do not understand how you think that only worlds with 
extremely consistent physics can support consciousness is unlikely. 
Are you only considering a single momentary instance of 
consciousness? It is quite easy to prove that if there exist multiple 
conscious entities that can communicate coherently with each other 
(in the sense that they can understand each other) then the physics 
of their common world will necessarily be maximally consistent as it 
if where not then pathological Harry Potterisms will occur that would 
prevent the arbitrary extension of their experience. 


I don't know what you mean by 'the arbitrary extension of their 
experience'. 

Hi Brent,

Oh, let's see. If we could upload ourselves into artificial 
hardware then we are by definition arbitrarily extending our 
experiences... If we go with the reincarnation theories we get 
arbitrary extensions as well...



How would magical events prevent anything.


An Evil Wizard could pop into my vicinity and banish me to the 
Nether plane! A magical act, if real and just part of a story, is an 
event that violates some conservation law. I don't see what else would 
constitute magic... My point is that Harry Potterisms would introduce 
cul-de-sacs that would totally screw up the statistics and measures, so 
they have to be banished. Chain-wise consistency and concurrency rules 
would prevent these pathologies, but to get them we have to consider 
multiple and disjoint observers and not just shared 1p as such 
implicitly assume an absolute frame of reference. Basically we need both 
conservation laws and general covariance. Do we obtain that naturally 
from COMP? That's an open question.


We  have reports of miracles all the time from less scientific places 
and times and they don't seem to prevent anything.  We tend to not 
believe them because they violate the physics which we suppose to be 
consistent in time and place - but you can't invoke that as evidence 
that physics is consistent on pain of vicious circularity.


That is my point. We do not see such violations, not ever!



Additionally, it would be extremely difficult for such worlds to have 
conservation laws. 


But the symmetry principles that result in conservation laws are 
arguably human selections.  We pay attention to and build 'laws' on 
what does not depend on particular time/place/orientation; so may 
conservation of momentum and energy are (at least approximately) 
inevitable.


How so? It is one thing to have symbolic representations of 
experiences and so forth, it is another to have 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread acw

On 3/12/2012 05:43, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/11/2012 8:30 PM, acw wrote:

On 3/12/2012 00:39, meekerdb wrote:

This implies that our measure is strongly correlated with the regularity
of physics. I'm not sure you can show that, but if it's true it means
that physics is fundamental to our existence, even if physics can be
explained by the UD. Only worlds with extremely consistent physics can
support consciousness (which seems unlikely to me).

Maybe, it's more of a conjecture, I don't posses the theoretical tools
to make some headway on the issue for now.
As for physics being essential, I'm not 100% sure, it might be for us,
humans with physical brains and bodies, but I don't see why it would
be for a SIM, or for a detailed emulation of a human body/brain:
consider the case of such a SIMs living in a VR(Virtual Reality)
simulation - they wouldn't really care what the underlying substrate
would be, but then, they would know they are in a simulation (to some
degree). A more interesting question might be not about SIMs living in
VRs, but those beings which live in a physical world and have bodies
and are self-aware of those bodies and their own embedding in such a
physical world - what possible statistically stable laws of physics
would be required for such beings (I think Tegmark called them
Self-Aware Substructures)? Since we know we're in such a situation,
what laws of physics are possible that have conscious self-aware
observers with 'physical' bodies?


Hi,

Could it be that we are tacitly assuming that our notion of Virtual is
such that there always exists a standard what is the Real version? If
it is not possible to tell if a given object of experience is real or
virtual, why do we default to it being virtual, as if it was somehow
possible to compare the object in question with an unassailably real
version? As I see it, if we can somehow show that a given object of
experience is the _best possible_ simulation (modulo available
resources) then it is real, as a better or more real simulation of
it is impossible to generate. Our physical world is 'real' simply
because there does not exist a better simulation of it.

Sure, given a mathematical ontology, real is just the structure you 
exist in - an indexical. This real might be limited in some way (for 
example in COMP, you cannot help but get some indeterminacy like MW)- a 
newtonian physics simulation might be real for those living in it and 
which are embedded in it, although if this would really work without any 
indeterminacy, I'm skeptical of.


I should have been more precise, when I said VR, I didn't merely mean a 
good digital physics simulation where the observer's entire body+brain 
is contained within, I meant something more high-level, think of Second 
Life or Blocks World or some other similar simulation done 1000 years 
from now with much more computational resources. The main difference 
between VR and physical-real is that one contains a body+brain embedded 
in that physical-real world (as matter), thus physical-real is also a 
self-contained consistent mathematical structure, while VR has some 
external component which prevents a form of physical self-awareness (you 
can't have brain surgery in a VR, at least not in the sense we do have 
in the real world). The main difference here is that the VR can be 
influenced by a higher level at which the VR itself runs, while a 
physical-real structure is completely self-contained.



Onward!

Stephen




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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread Stephen P. King

On 3/12/2012 2:53 AM, acw wrote:

On 3/12/2012 05:43, Stephen P. King wrote:

Hi,

Could it be that we are tacitly assuming that our notion of Virtual is
such that there always exists a standard what is the Real version? If
it is not possible to tell if a given object of experience is real or
virtual, why do we default to it being virtual, as if it was somehow
possible to compare the object in question with an unassailably real
version? As I see it, if we can somehow show that a given object of
experience is the _best possible_ simulation (modulo available
resources) then it is real, as a better or more real simulation of
it is impossible to generate. Our physical world is 'real' simply
because there does not exist a better simulation of it.

Sure, given a mathematical ontology, real is just the structure you 
exist in - an indexical. This real might be limited in some way (for 
example in COMP, you cannot help but get some indeterminacy like MW)- 
a newtonian physics simulation might be real for those living in it 
and which are embedded in it, although if this would really work 
without any indeterminacy, I'm skeptical of.


I should have been more precise, when I said VR, I didn't merely mean 
a good digital physics simulation where the observer's entire 
body+brain is contained within, I meant something more high-level, 
think of Second Life or Blocks World or some other similar 
simulation done 1000 years from now with much more computational 
resources. The main difference between VR and physical-real is that 
one contains a body+brain embedded in that physical-real world (as 
matter), thus physical-real is also a self-contained consistent 
mathematical structure, while VR has some external component which 
prevents a form of physical self-awareness (you can't have brain 
surgery in a VR, at least not in the sense we do have in the real 
world). The main difference here is that the VR can be influenced by a 
higher level at which the VR itself runs, while a physical-real 
structure is completely self-contained.


Hi!

I am mot exactly sure of what you mean by indexical. As to brain 
surgery in VR, why not? All that is needed is rules in the program that 
control the 1p experience of content to some states in game structures. 
The point is that if we are considering brains-in-vasts problems we need 
to also consider the other minds problems. We should not be analyzing 
this from a strict one person situation. You and I have different 
experiences up to and including the something that is like being 
Stephen as different from something that is like to being ACW. If we 
where internally identical minds then why would be even be having this 
conversation? We would literally know each others thought by merely 
having them. This is why I argue that plural shared 1p is a weakness in 
COMP. We have to have disjointness at least.


Onward!

Stephen

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread acw

On 3/12/2012 08:04, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/12/2012 2:53 AM, acw wrote:

On 3/12/2012 05:43, Stephen P. King wrote:

Hi,

Could it be that we are tacitly assuming that our notion of Virtual is
such that there always exists a standard what is the Real version? If
it is not possible to tell if a given object of experience is real or
virtual, why do we default to it being virtual, as if it was somehow
possible to compare the object in question with an unassailably real
version? As I see it, if we can somehow show that a given object of
experience is the _best possible_ simulation (modulo available
resources) then it is real, as a better or more real simulation of
it is impossible to generate. Our physical world is 'real' simply
because there does not exist a better simulation of it.


Sure, given a mathematical ontology, real is just the structure you
exist in - an indexical. This real might be limited in some way (for
example in COMP, you cannot help but get some indeterminacy like MW)-
a newtonian physics simulation might be real for those living in it
and which are embedded in it, although if this would really work
without any indeterminacy, I'm skeptical of.

I should have been more precise, when I said VR, I didn't merely mean
a good digital physics simulation where the observer's entire
body+brain is contained within, I meant something more high-level,
think of Second Life or Blocks World or some other similar
simulation done 1000 years from now with much more computational
resources. The main difference between VR and physical-real is that
one contains a body+brain embedded in that physical-real world (as
matter), thus physical-real is also a self-contained consistent
mathematical structure, while VR has some external component which
prevents a form of physical self-awareness (you can't have brain
surgery in a VR, at least not in the sense we do have in the real
world). The main difference here is that the VR can be influenced by a
higher level at which the VR itself runs, while a physical-real
structure is completely self-contained.


Hi!

I am mot exactly sure of what you mean by indexical.
Your current state, time, location, birth place, brain state, etc are 
indexicals. The (observed) laws of physics are also indexicals, unless 
you can show that either only one possible set of laws of physics is 
possible or you just assume that (for example, in a primary matter 
hypothesis).




As to brain
surgery in VR, why not? All that is needed is rules in the program that
control the 1p experience of content to some states in game structures.
Our brains are made of matter and if we change them, our experience 
changes. In a VR, the brain's implementation is assumed external to the 
VR, if not, it would be a digital physics simulation, which is a bit 
different (self-contained). It might be possible to change your brain 
within the VR if the right APIs and protocols are implemented, but the 
brain's computations are done externally to the VR physics simulation 
(at a different layer, for example, brain program is ran separately 
from physics simulation program) . There's some subtle details here - 
if the brain was computed entirely through the VR's physics, UDA would 
apply and you would get the VR's physics simulation's indeterminacy (no 
longer a simulation, but something existing on its own in the UD*), 
otherwise, the brain's implementation depends on the indeterminacy 
present at the upper layer and not of the VR's physics simulation. This 
is a subtle point, but there would be a difference in measure and 
experience between simulating the brain from a digital physics 
simulation and external to it. In our world, we have the very high 
confidence belief that our brains are made of matter and thus 
implemented at the same level as our reality. In a VR, we may assume the 
implementation of our brains as external to the VR's physics - 
experienced reality being different from mind's body (brain) reality.

The point is that if we are considering brains-in-vasts problems we need
to also consider the other minds problems. We should not be analyzing
this from a strict one person situation. You and I have different
experiences up to and including the something that is like being
Stephen as different from something that is like to being ACW. If we
where internally identical minds then why would be even be having this
conversation? We would literally know each others thought by merely
having them. This is why I argue that plural shared 1p is a weakness in
COMP. We have to have disjointness at least.
We have different mind-states thus we have different experiences. I'm 
not entirely sure why would we share a mind if we didn't share a brain - 
it doesn't make much sense to me.


Onward!

Stephen




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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread Stephen P. King

On 3/12/2012 3:49 AM, acw wrote:

On 3/12/2012 08:04, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/12/2012 2:53 AM, acw wrote:

On 3/12/2012 05:43, Stephen P. King wrote:

Hi,

Could it be that we are tacitly assuming that our notion of Virtual is
such that there always exists a standard what is the Real 
version? If

it is not possible to tell if a given object of experience is real or
virtual, why do we default to it being virtual, as if it was somehow
possible to compare the object in question with an unassailably real
version? As I see it, if we can somehow show that a given object of
experience is the _best possible_ simulation (modulo available
resources) then it is real, as a better or more real simulation of
it is impossible to generate. Our physical world is 'real' simply
because there does not exist a better simulation of it.


Sure, given a mathematical ontology, real is just the structure you
exist in - an indexical. This real might be limited in some way (for
example in COMP, you cannot help but get some indeterminacy like MW)-
a newtonian physics simulation might be real for those living in it
and which are embedded in it, although if this would really work
without any indeterminacy, I'm skeptical of.

I should have been more precise, when I said VR, I didn't merely mean
a good digital physics simulation where the observer's entire
body+brain is contained within, I meant something more high-level,
think of Second Life or Blocks World or some other similar
simulation done 1000 years from now with much more computational
resources. The main difference between VR and physical-real is that
one contains a body+brain embedded in that physical-real world (as
matter), thus physical-real is also a self-contained consistent
mathematical structure, while VR has some external component which
prevents a form of physical self-awareness (you can't have brain
surgery in a VR, at least not in the sense we do have in the real
world). The main difference here is that the VR can be influenced by a
higher level at which the VR itself runs, while a physical-real
structure is completely self-contained.


Hi!

I am mot exactly sure of what you mean by indexical.
Your current state, time, location, birth place, brain state, etc are 
indexicals. The (observed) laws of physics are also indexicals, unless 
you can show that either only one possible set of laws of physics is 
possible or you just assume that (for example, in a primary matter 
hypothesis).




As to brain
surgery in VR, why not? All that is needed is rules in the program that
control the 1p experience of content to some states in game structures.
Our brains are made of matter and if we change them, our experience 
changes. In a VR, the brain's implementation is assumed external to 
the VR, if not, it would be a digital physics simulation, which is a 
bit different (self-contained). It might be possible to change your 
brain within the VR if the right APIs and protocols are implemented, 
but the brain's computations are done externally to the VR physics 
simulation (at a different layer, for example, brain program is ran 
separately from physics simulation program) . There's some subtle 
details here - if the brain was computed entirely through the VR's 
physics, UDA would apply and you would get the VR's physics 
simulation's indeterminacy (no longer a simulation, but something 
existing on its own in the UD*), otherwise, the brain's implementation 
depends on the indeterminacy present at the upper layer and not of the 
VR's physics simulation. This is a subtle point, but there would be a 
difference in measure and experience between simulating the brain from 
a digital physics simulation and external to it. In our world, we have 
the very high confidence belief that our brains are made of matter and 
thus implemented at the same level as our reality. In a VR, we may 
assume the implementation of our brains as external to the VR's 
physics - experienced reality being different from mind's body (brain) 
reality.


Hi,

Umm, this looks like you are making a difference between a 
situation where your P.o.V. os stuck 'in one's head and a P.o.V. 
where it is free to move about. Have you ever played a MMORPG game? 
These two situations are just a matter of the programs parameters... 
Again, what makes the virtual reality virtual? I claim that it is only 
because there is some other point of view or stance that is taken as 
real such that the virtual version is has fewer detail and degrees of 
freedom. If a sufficiently powerful computer can generate a simulation 
of a physical world, why can it not simulate brains in it as well? Some 
people think that minds are just something that the brain does, so why 
not have a single program generating all of it - brains and minds included?
My problem is that I fail to see how the UD and indeterminacy given 
copy and paste operations is involved in this question.



The point is that if we are considering brains-in-vasts 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/3/12 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

 On 3/12/2012 3:49 AM, acw wrote:

 On 3/12/2012 08:04, Stephen P. King wrote:

 On 3/12/2012 2:53 AM, acw wrote:

 On 3/12/2012 05:43, Stephen P. King wrote:

 Hi,

 Could it be that we are tacitly assuming that our notion of Virtual is
 such that there always exists a standard what is the Real version? If
 it is not possible to tell if a given object of experience is real or
 virtual, why do we default to it being virtual, as if it was somehow
 possible to compare the object in question with an unassailably real
 version? As I see it, if we can somehow show that a given object of
 experience is the _best possible_ simulation (modulo available
 resources) then it is real, as a better or more real simulation of
 it is impossible to generate. Our physical world is 'real' simply
 because there does not exist a better simulation of it.

  Sure, given a mathematical ontology, real is just the structure you
 exist in - an indexical. This real might be limited in some way (for
 example in COMP, you cannot help but get some indeterminacy like MW)-
 a newtonian physics simulation might be real for those living in it
 and which are embedded in it, although if this would really work
 without any indeterminacy, I'm skeptical of.

 I should have been more precise, when I said VR, I didn't merely mean
 a good digital physics simulation where the observer's entire
 body+brain is contained within, I meant something more high-level,
 think of Second Life or Blocks World or some other similar
 simulation done 1000 years from now with much more computational
 resources. The main difference between VR and physical-real is that
 one contains a body+brain embedded in that physical-real world (as
 matter), thus physical-real is also a self-contained consistent
 mathematical structure, while VR has some external component which
 prevents a form of physical self-awareness (you can't have brain
 surgery in a VR, at least not in the sense we do have in the real
 world). The main difference here is that the VR can be influenced by a
 higher level at which the VR itself runs, while a physical-real
 structure is completely self-contained.


 Hi!

 I am mot exactly sure of what you mean by indexical.

 Your current state, time, location, birth place, brain state, etc are
 indexicals. The (observed) laws of physics are also indexicals, unless you
 can show that either only one possible set of laws of physics is possible
 or you just assume that (for example, in a primary matter hypothesis).


  As to brain
 surgery in VR, why not? All that is needed is rules in the program that
 control the 1p experience of content to some states in game structures.

 Our brains are made of matter and if we change them, our experience
 changes. In a VR, the brain's implementation is assumed external to the VR,
 if not, it would be a digital physics simulation, which is a bit different
 (self-contained). It might be possible to change your brain within the VR
 if the right APIs and protocols are implemented, but the brain's
 computations are done externally to the VR physics simulation (at a
 different layer, for example, brain program is ran separately from
 physics simulation program) . There's some subtle details here - if the
 brain was computed entirely through the VR's physics, UDA would apply and
 you would get the VR's physics simulation's indeterminacy (no longer a
 simulation, but something existing on its own in the UD*), otherwise, the
 brain's implementation depends on the indeterminacy present at the upper
 layer and not of the VR's physics simulation. This is a subtle point, but
 there would be a difference in measure and experience between simulating
 the brain from a digital physics simulation and external to it. In our
 world, we have the very high confidence belief that our brains are made of
 matter and thus implemented at the same level as our reality. In a VR, we
 may assume the implementation of our brains as external to the VR's physics
 - experienced reality being different from mind's body (brain) reality.


 Hi,

Umm, this looks like you are making a difference between a situation
 where your P.o.V. os stuck 'in one's head and a P.o.V. where it is free
 to move about. Have you ever played a MMORPG game? These two situations are
 just a matter of the programs parameters... Again, what makes the virtual
 reality virtual? I claim that it is only because there is some other
 point of view or stance that is taken as real such that the virtual
 version is has fewer detail and degrees of freedom. If a sufficiently
 powerful computer can generate a simulation of a physical world, why can it
 not simulate brains in it as well? Some people think that minds are just
 something that the brain does, so why not have a single program
 generating all of it - brains and minds included?
My problem is that I fail to see how the UD and indeterminacy given
 copy and paste operations is 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread acw

On 3/12/2012 09:41, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/12/2012 3:49 AM, acw wrote:

On 3/12/2012 08:04, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/12/2012 2:53 AM, acw wrote:

On 3/12/2012 05:43, Stephen P. King wrote:

Hi,

Could it be that we are tacitly assuming that our notion of Virtual is
such that there always exists a standard what is the Real
version? If
it is not possible to tell if a given object of experience is real or
virtual, why do we default to it being virtual, as if it was somehow
possible to compare the object in question with an unassailably real
version? As I see it, if we can somehow show that a given object of
experience is the _best possible_ simulation (modulo available
resources) then it is real, as a better or more real simulation of
it is impossible to generate. Our physical world is 'real' simply
because there does not exist a better simulation of it.


Sure, given a mathematical ontology, real is just the structure you
exist in - an indexical. This real might be limited in some way (for
example in COMP, you cannot help but get some indeterminacy like MW)-
a newtonian physics simulation might be real for those living in it
and which are embedded in it, although if this would really work
without any indeterminacy, I'm skeptical of.

I should have been more precise, when I said VR, I didn't merely mean
a good digital physics simulation where the observer's entire
body+brain is contained within, I meant something more high-level,
think of Second Life or Blocks World or some other similar
simulation done 1000 years from now with much more computational
resources. The main difference between VR and physical-real is that
one contains a body+brain embedded in that physical-real world (as
matter), thus physical-real is also a self-contained consistent
mathematical structure, while VR has some external component which
prevents a form of physical self-awareness (you can't have brain
surgery in a VR, at least not in the sense we do have in the real
world). The main difference here is that the VR can be influenced by a
higher level at which the VR itself runs, while a physical-real
structure is completely self-contained.


Hi!

I am mot exactly sure of what you mean by indexical.

Your current state, time, location, birth place, brain state, etc are
indexicals. The (observed) laws of physics are also indexicals, unless
you can show that either only one possible set of laws of physics is
possible or you just assume that (for example, in a primary matter
hypothesis).



As to brain
surgery in VR, why not? All that is needed is rules in the program that
control the 1p experience of content to some states in game structures.

Our brains are made of matter and if we change them, our experience
changes. In a VR, the brain's implementation is assumed external to
the VR, if not, it would be a digital physics simulation, which is a
bit different (self-contained). It might be possible to change your
brain within the VR if the right APIs and protocols are implemented,
but the brain's computations are done externally to the VR physics
simulation (at a different layer, for example, brain program is ran
separately from physics simulation program) . There's some subtle
details here - if the brain was computed entirely through the VR's
physics, UDA would apply and you would get the VR's physics
simulation's indeterminacy (no longer a simulation, but something
existing on its own in the UD*), otherwise, the brain's implementation
depends on the indeterminacy present at the upper layer and not of the
VR's physics simulation. This is a subtle point, but there would be a
difference in measure and experience between simulating the brain from
a digital physics simulation and external to it. In our world, we have
the very high confidence belief that our brains are made of matter and
thus implemented at the same level as our reality. In a VR, we may
assume the implementation of our brains as external to the VR's
physics - experienced reality being different from mind's body (brain)
reality.


Hi,

Umm, this looks like you are making a difference between a situation
where your P.o.V. os stuck 'in one's head and a P.o.V. where it is
free to move about.
The difference that I'm trying to illustrate is about how the brain is 
implemented and with what it's entangled with, or what is required for 
its implementation. In the reality implementation case, a real brain 
is implemented by random machines below the substitution level. The 
experiences are also given by those machines if the brain/body are one 
and the same. The problem with VRs is that the physics, thus the 
generated sensory input (and output from player) is separated from 
actual mind's implementation - they run at different layers, thus we 
cannot use experienced sensory information to predict much about our 
mind's implementation (or what would happen next) without a specially 
designed VR which is made to facilitate just that (a special case VR).
The measure differences 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread R AM
On Sun, Mar 11, 2012 at 10:43 PM, acw a...@lavabit.com wrote:

 On 3/11/2012 21:44, R AM wrote:


 However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only
 indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be anything
 at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we conclude that
 comp is false?

 You're basically presenting the White Rabbit problem here. I used to
 wonder if that is indeed the case, but after considering it further, it
 doesn't seem to be: your 1p is identified with some particular abstract
 machine - that part is mostly determinate and deterministic (or
 quasi-deterministic if you allow some leeway as to what constitutes persona
 identity) in its behavior, but below that substitution level, anything can
 change, as long as that machine is implemented correctly/consistently.


Not sure if I understand you ... I was thinking of something like this: if
comp is true, then we can upload the mind into a computer and simulate the
environment. The simulator could be constructed so that the stimuli given
to the mind is a sequence of arbitrary white rabbits. Is there somehing
in comp that makes the existence of such evil simulators unlikely?

Ricardo.






 If the level is low enough and most of the machines implementing the lower
 layers that eventually implement our mind correspond to one world (such as
 ours), that would imply reasonably stable experience and some MWI-like laws
 of physics - not white noise experiences. That is to say that if we don't
 experience white noise, statistically our experiences will be stable - this
 does not mean that we won't have really unusual jumps or changes in
 laws-of-physics or experience when our measure is greatly reduced (such as
 the current statistically winning machines no longer being able to
 implement your mind - 3p death from the point of view of others).

 Also, one possible way of showing COMP false is to show that such stable
 implementations are impossible, however this seems not obvious to me. A
 more practical concern would be to consider the case of what would happen
 if the substitution level is chosen slightly wrong or too high - would it
 lead to too unstable 1p or merely just allow the SIM(Substrate Independent
 Mind) to more easily pick which lower-level machines implement it (there's
 another thought experiment which shows how this could be done, if a machine
 can find one of its own Godel-number).


 Ricardo.



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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi John,

On 11 Mar 2012, at 20:36, John Mikes wrote:


John,
'te bartender cuts in...' - I believe David indeed has no idea what  
the real point in issue may be - he would have been addressing it.  
There is NO real point.
In those thought experiments (euphemism for phantasm to justify  
points of non-existence) certain prerequisites are also needed  
(additional phantasms) and justification for them, too. Then there  
are 'conclusions' imaginary and the consequences of such - built in.
I admire the patience of Bruno replying to all those (circular?  
fantasy-related?) posts (I am not relating to your posts) - I lost  
the endurance to follow all of them lately. I read a lot of David's  
posts and think your expressed ...belie(f)ve your (i.e. David's)  
thinking is naive simplistic and commonplace.  is wrong.


Can't agree more.

It is a shame, because you seem to be a well-thinking and well- 
educated guy who works with well-crafted logical argumentation.
I cannot raise my voice for/against indeterminacy because of my  
agnostic worldview that postulates lots of unknown/unknowable  
factors influencing our decisions - together with factors we know of  
and acknowledge - so uncertainty may be ignorance-based, not only  
haphazardous. A 'deterministic' totality, however, is a matter of  
belief for me - unjustified as well - because of the partial 'order'  
we detect in the so far knowable nature (negating 'random'  
occurrences that would screw-up any order, even the limited local  
ones).

My worldview is my 'faith' - not subject to discussion.



Best,

Bruno








On Sun, Mar 11, 2012 at 1:00 PM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com  
wrote:

On Sun, Mar 11, 2012  David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

 John, I hope you will not think me impertinent, but you're  
expending a

great deal of time and energy arguing with an elaborate series of
straw men.  No doubt this is great fun and highly entertaining, but
would you consider the alternative of requesting clarification of the
real point at issue?  It's painful to see you repeatedly arguing past
it.

If your thinking were clear and you understood what  the real point  
at issue was and you knew of a key question I have not answered you  
would have certainly asked it somewhere in the above; but you did  
not I think because you could not, and that fact makes me believe  
your thinking is naive simplistic and commonplace.  Prove me wrong.


  John K Clark

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Mar 2012, at 21:44, R AM wrote:

This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about the  
whole point of the exercise.


To explain that if we are machine then the mind-bpdy problem reduces  
partially into a justification of the laws of physics from computer  
science/arithmetic.




I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future content of  
subjective experience is indeterminated?


It depends of the protocols, but eventually if comp is true then some  
first plural indeterminacy exists and can be shared, like QM  
illustrates. But if comp is correct QM has to be a theorem of  
arithmetic concerning the relations between a machine and its possible  
universal neighbors.





Although comp might seem to entail 100% determinacy, just the  
contrary is the case. Is that correct?


I guess acw have answered all this. Comp entails third person  
determinacy (cf the working of a computer) and some local and global  
indeterminacy due to self-duplication. You have to do the thought  
experiments by yourself to grasp the meaning of this.




However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only  
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be  
anything at all.



Prove this, and you refute comp.
The UD Argument might leads to that, but actually it leads more to QM  
than to a contradiction.



But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we conclude that comp  
is false?


That would be rather premature. There is a measure problem, but it is  
an interesting one. It put light on a possible origin of both  
consciousness and the appearance of matter and laws. We discuss that  
measure problem since the beginning of this list. All everything- 
type of theories have a measure problem. It is akin to the modal  
inflation in logical realism.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Mar 2012, at 04:47, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/11/2012 8:03 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/11/2012 7:39 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 2:43 PM, acw wrote:

On 3/11/2012 21:44, R AM wrote:
This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about  
the whole

point of the exercise.

I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future  
content of
subjective experience is indeterminated? Although comp might  
seem to entail

100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?
3p indeterminacy in the form of the UD*, 1p determinacy from the  
perspective of those minds relative to bodies in the UD*.


However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not  
only
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could  
be anything
at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we  
conclude that

comp is false?
You're basically presenting the White Rabbit problem here. I  
used to wonder if that is indeed the case, but after considering  
it further, it doesn't seem to be: your 1p is identified with  
some particular abstract machine - that part is mostly  
determinate and deterministic (or quasi-deterministic if you  
allow some leeway as to what constitutes persona identity) in its  
behavior, but below that substitution level, anything can change,  
as long as that machine is implemented correctly/consistently. If  
the level is low enough and most of the machines implementing the  
lower layers that eventually implement our mind correspond to one  
world (such as ours), that would imply reasonably stable  
experience and some MWI-like laws of physics - not white noise  
experiences. That is to say that if we don't experience white  
noise, statistically our experiences will be stable - this does  
not mean that we won't have really unusual jumps or changes in  
laws-of-physics or experience when our measure is greatly reduced  
(such as the current statistically winning machines no longer  
being able to implement your mind - 3p death from the point of  
view of others).


This implies that our measure is strongly correlated with the  
regularity of physics.  I'm not sure you can show that, but if  
it's true it means that physics is fundamental to our existence,  
even if physics can be explained by the UD.  Only worlds with  
extremely consistent physics can support consciousness (which  
seems unlikely to me).


Brent

Hi Brent,

   I do not understand how you think that only worlds with  
extremely consistent physics can support consciousness is  
unlikely. Are you only considering a single momentary instance of  
consciousness? It is quite easy to prove that if there exist  
multiple conscious entities that can communicate coherently with  
each other (in the sense that they can understand each other)  
then the physics of their common world will necessarily be  
maximally consistent as it if where not then pathological Harry  
Potterisms will occur that would prevent the arbitrary extension of  
their experience.


I don't know what you mean by 'the arbitrary extension of their  
experience'.  How would magical events prevent anything.  We  have  
reports of miracles all the time from less scientific places and  
times and they don't seem to prevent anything.  We tend to not  
believe them because they violate the physics which we suppose to be  
consistent in time and place - but you can't invoke that as evidence  
that physics is consistent on pain of vicious circularity.


Additionally, it would be extremely difficult for such worlds to  
have conservation laws.


But the symmetry principles that result in conservation laws are  
arguably human selections.  We pay attention to and build 'laws' on  
what does not depend on particular time/place/orientation; so may  
conservation of momentum and energy are (at least approximately)  
inevitable.


There is also the problem that according to current theories are  
many possible kinds of physics even if you limit them to just those  
consistent with string theory, much less Classical physics.


But my main point was conditional.  IF consciousness is strongly  
dependent on physics then Bruno's program of replacing physics with  
arithmetic isn't going anywhere because arithmetic will produce too  
many kinds of worlds and only by studying physics will we be able to  
learn about our world.


OK, but my logical point here is that in such a case comp has to be  
wrong. It is not so much a program than an logical obligation for  
staying rational *and* betting on comp, whatever the level is, if it  
exists.






It is because of this line of reasoning that I resist the Platonic  
interpretation of COMP as it puts pathological universes on the  
same level of likelihood as non-pathological ones.


That's the question.  Is there some canonical measure that makes the  
non-pathological ones overwhelmingly likely?


It exists or comp is false. There are evidences that it exists, like  
the variants 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread meekerdb

On 3/11/2012 11:41 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/11/2012 11:47 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 8:03 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/11/2012 7:39 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 2:43 PM, acw wrote:

On 3/11/2012 21:44, R AM wrote:

This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about the whole
point of the exercise.

I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future content of
subjective experience is indeterminated? Although comp might seem to entail
100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?
3p indeterminacy in the form of the UD*, 1p determinacy from the perspective of 
those minds relative to bodies in the UD*.


However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be anything
at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we conclude that
comp is false?
You're basically presenting the White Rabbit problem here. I used to wonder if 
that is indeed the case, but after considering it further, it doesn't seem to be: 
your 1p is identified with some particular abstract machine - that part is mostly 
determinate and deterministic (or quasi-deterministic if you allow some leeway as to 
what constitutes persona identity) in its behavior, but below that substitution 
level, anything can change, as long as that machine is implemented 
correctly/consistently. If the level is low enough and most of the machines 
implementing the lower layers that eventually implement our mind correspond to one 
world (such as ours), that would imply reasonably stable experience and some 
MWI-like laws of physics - not white noise experiences. That is to say that if we 
don't experience white noise, statistically our experiences will be stable - this 
does not mean that we won't have really unusual jumps or changes in 
laws-of-physics or experience when our measure is greatly reduced (such as the 
current statistically winning machines no longer being able to implement your mind - 
3p death from the point of view of others).


This implies that our measure is strongly correlated with the regularity of physics.  
I'm not sure you can show that, but if it's true it means that physics is fundamental 
to our existence, even if physics can be explained by the UD.  Only worlds with 
extremely consistent physics can support consciousness (which seems unlikely to me).


Brent

Hi Brent,

I do not understand how you think that only worlds with extremely consistent 
physics can support consciousness is unlikely. Are you only considering a single 
momentary instance of consciousness? It is quite easy to prove that if there exist 
multiple conscious entities that can communicate coherently with each other (in the 
sense that they can understand each other) then the physics of their common world 
will necessarily be maximally consistent as it if where not then pathological Harry 
Potterisms will occur that would prevent the arbitrary extension of their experience. 


I don't know what you mean by 'the arbitrary extension of their experience'. 

Hi Brent,

Oh, let's see. If we could upload ourselves into artificial hardware then we are by 
definition arbitrarily extending our experiences... If we go with the reincarnation 
theories we get arbitrary extensions as well...



How would magical events prevent anything.


An Evil Wizard could pop into my vicinity and banish me to the Nether plane! A 
magical act, if real and just part of a story, is an event that violates some 
conservation law. I don't see what else would constitute magic... My point is that Harry 
Potterisms would introduce cul-de-sacs that would totally screw up the statistics and 
measures, so they have to be banished. 


Have to be?  To satisfy you...or what?

Chain-wise consistency and concurrency rules would prevent these pathologies, but to get 
them we have to consider multiple and disjoint observers and not just shared 1p as 
such implicitly assume an absolute frame of reference. Basically we need both 
conservation laws and general covariance. Do we obtain that naturally from COMP? That's 
an open question.


We  have reports of miracles all the time from less scientific places and times and 
they don't seem to prevent anything.  We tend to not believe them because they violate 
the physics which we suppose to be consistent in time and place - but you can't invoke 
that as evidence that physics is consistent on pain of vicious circularity.


That is my point. We do not see such violations, not ever!



Additionally, it would be extremely difficult for such worlds to have conservation laws. 


But the symmetry principles that result in conservation laws are arguably human 
selections.  We pay attention to and build 'laws' on what does not depend on particular 
time/place/orientation; so may conservation of momentum and energy are (at least 
approximately) inevitable.


How so? It is one thing to have symbolic 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread Stephen P. King

On 3/12/2012 4:21 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 11:41 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/11/2012 11:47 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 8:03 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/11/2012 7:39 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 2:43 PM, acw wrote:

On 3/11/2012 21:44, R AM wrote:
This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about 
the whole

point of the exercise.

I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future 
content of
subjective experience is indeterminated? Although comp might 
seem to entail

100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?
3p indeterminacy in the form of the UD*, 1p determinacy from the 
perspective of those minds relative to bodies in the UD*.


However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not 
only
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could 
be anything
at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we 
conclude that

comp is false?
You're basically presenting the White Rabbit problem here. I 
used to wonder if that is indeed the case, but after considering 
it further, it doesn't seem to be: your 1p is identified with 
some particular abstract machine - that part is mostly 
determinate and deterministic (or quasi-deterministic if you 
allow some leeway as to what constitutes persona identity) in its 
behavior, but below that substitution level, anything can change, 
as long as that machine is implemented correctly/consistently. If 
the level is low enough and most of the machines implementing the 
lower layers that eventually implement our mind correspond to one 
world (such as ours), that would imply reasonably stable 
experience and some MWI-like laws of physics - not white noise 
experiences. That is to say that if we don't experience white 
noise, statistically our experiences will be stable - this does 
not mean that we won't have really unusual jumps or changes in 
laws-of-physics or experience when our measure is greatly reduced 
(such as the current statistically winning machines no longer 
being able to implement your mind - 3p death from the point of 
view of others).


This implies that our measure is strongly correlated with the 
regularity of physics.  I'm not sure you can show that, but if 
it's true it means that physics is fundamental to our existence, 
even if physics can be explained by the UD.  Only worlds with 
extremely consistent physics can support consciousness (which 
seems unlikely to me).


Brent

Hi Brent,

I do not understand how you think that only worlds with 
extremely consistent physics can support consciousness is 
unlikely. Are you only considering a single momentary instance of 
consciousness? It is quite easy to prove that if there exist 
multiple conscious entities that can communicate coherently with 
each other (in the sense that they can understand each other) 
then the physics of their common world will necessarily be 
maximally consistent as it if where not then pathological Harry 
Potterisms will occur that would prevent the arbitrary extension of 
their experience. 


I don't know what you mean by 'the arbitrary extension of their 
experience'. 

Hi Brent,

Oh, let's see. If we could upload ourselves into artificial 
hardware then we are by definition arbitrarily extending our 
experiences... If we go with the reincarnation theories we get 
arbitrary extensions as well...



How would magical events prevent anything.


An Evil Wizard could pop into my vicinity and banish me to the 
Nether plane! A magical act, if real and just part of a story, is 
an event that violates some conservation law. I don't see what else 
would constitute magic... My point is that Harry Potterisms would 
introduce cul-de-sacs that would totally screw up the statistics and 
measures, so they have to be banished. 


Have to be?  To satisfy you...or what?


To satisfy the requirements of arbitrarily long extensions. My 
point is that Harry Potterisms are pathological because they can 
introduce arbitrary cul-de-sacs, therefore, they are a serious problem.




Chain-wise consistency and concurrency rules would prevent these 
pathologies, but to get them we have to consider multiple and 
disjoint observers and not just shared 1p as such implicitly assume 
an absolute frame of reference. Basically we need both conservation 
laws and general covariance. Do we obtain that naturally from COMP? 
That's an open question.


We  have reports of miracles all the time from less scientific 
places and times and they don't seem to prevent anything.  We tend 
to not believe them because they violate the physics which we 
suppose to be consistent in time and place - but you can't invoke 
that as evidence that physics is consistent on pain of vicious 
circularity.


That is my point. We do not see such violations, not ever!



Additionally, it would be extremely difficult for such worlds to 
have conservation laws. 


But the symmetry principles that result in conservation laws 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread Stephen P. King

On 3/12/2012 10:00 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 11:41 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:
An Evil Wizard could pop into my vicinity and banish me to the 
Nether plane! A magical act, if real and just part of a story, is 
an event that violates some conservation law. I don't see what else 
would constitute magic... My point is that Harry Potterisms would 
introduce cul-de-sacs that would totally screw up the statistics and 
measures, so they have to be banished. 


Because otherwise things would be screwed up?

Chain-wise consistency and concurrency rules would prevent these 
pathologies, but to get them we have to consider multiple and 
disjoint observers and not just shared 1p as such implicitly assume 
an absolute frame of reference. Basically we need both conservation 
laws and general covariance. Do we obtain that naturally from COMP? 
That's an open question. 


You seem to be begging the question: We need regularity, otherwise 
things wouldn't be regular.


No, you are dodging the real question: How is the measure defined? 
If it is imposed by fiat, say so and defend the claim. Why is it so hard 
to get you to consider multiple observers and consider the question as 
to how exactly do they interact? Al of the discussion that I have seen 
so far considers a single observer and abstractions about other people. 
The most I am getting is the word plurality. Is this difficult? Really?


Onward!

Stephen

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-12 Thread meekerdb

On 3/12/2012 7:16 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/12/2012 10:00 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 11:41 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:
An Evil Wizard could pop into my vicinity and banish me to the Nether plane! A 
magical act, if real and just part of a story, is an event that violates some 
conservation law. I don't see what else would constitute magic... My point is that 
Harry Potterisms would introduce cul-de-sacs that would totally screw up the 
statistics and measures, so they have to be banished. 


Because otherwise things would be screwed up?

Chain-wise consistency and concurrency rules would prevent these pathologies, but to 
get them we have to consider multiple and disjoint observers and not just shared 1p 
as such implicitly assume an absolute frame of reference. Basically we need both 
conservation laws and general covariance. Do we obtain that naturally from COMP? 
That's an open question. 


You seem to be begging the question: We need regularity, otherwise things wouldn't be 
regular.


No, you are dodging the real question: How is the measure defined? 


The obvious way is that all non-self-contradictory events are equally likely. But that's 
hypothesized, not defined.  I'm not sure why you are asking how it's defined.  The usual 
definition is an assignment of a number in [0,1] to every member of a Borel set such that 
they satisfies Kolmogorov's axioms.


If it is imposed by fiat, say so and defend the claim. Why is it so hard to get you to 
consider multiple observers and consider the question as to how exactly do they 
interact? Al of the discussion that I have seen so far considers a single observer and 
abstractions about other people. The most I am getting is the word plurality. Is this 
difficult? Really?


It's difficult because people are trying to explain 'other people' and taking only their 
own consciousness as given.  If you're going to assume other people, why not assume 
physics too?


Brent

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread David Nyman
John, I hope you will not think me impertinent, but you're expending a
great deal of time and energy arguing with an elaborate series of
straw men.  No doubt this is great fun and highly entertaining, but
would you consider the alternative of requesting clarification of the
real point at issue?  It's painful to see you repeatedly arguing past
it.

David

On 11 March 2012 05:33, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Sat, Mar 10, 2012 at 3:29 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  and it is just very simple, for all people up to now, that the 1-views
  on their own 1-view is not duplicated.


 Well, if you haven't before considered the possibility that this obvious
 common sense assumption could be dead wrong it is certainly high time you
 did! Yes, the assumption that the 1-views on their own 1-view can not be
 duplicated is indeed simple, very very very simple, but not simple in a good
 way. Theories should be as simple as possible, but not simpler, because then
 they just become stupid. I insist that in my symmetrical room experiment
 there can be (or at least should not be) any doubt that the person's 1-views
 on their own 1-view HAS IN FACT BEEN DUPLICATED.


  but they feel like not having been duplicated


 Yes that is the entire point, you could be a copy of Bruno Marchal, you
 could be only 5 minutes old, I could have used generic atoms and information
 on how to assemble them from the original Bruno Marchal, so now you feel
 just like Bruno Marchal and your memories of being a child are just as vivid
 as the memories the original Bruno Marchal has.


  they know only intellectually the possible existence of the other


 That is quite untrue, both you (the copy) and you (the original Bruno
 Marchal) are in that symmetrical room and can see each other plain as day,
 and until random quantum fluctuations become significant it will be as if
 you're looking in a mirror for both of you, the two of you will both see
 somebody who looks just like Bruno Marchal who is moving and speaking in
 synchronization with the way you move and speak.


  and in my symmetrical room thought experiment I make it crystal clear
  that the first person personal subjective perspective CAN be duplicated 
  just
  like everything else can be.


  Crystal clear?


 Yes crystal clear, as clear as the azure sky of deepest summer.


  It only shows that the 1-view is duplicated from a 3-view pov, not from
  the 1-view perspective.


 Explain to me how the 1-view perspective of anybody has changed from any
 perspective you care to name, any at all. Before the switch you, from your
 first person perspective, consciously feel like you are looking at somebody
 who looks, moves, acts, and speaks exactly like you do, it's as if you're
 looking into a mirror; and after the switch you, from your first person
 perspective consciously feel like you are looking at somebody who looks,
 moves, acts, and speaks exactly like you do, it's as if you're looking into
 a mirror. What has changed from the original's point of view, what has
 changed from the copy's point of view, what has changed from a third person
 observer's point of view, what has changed from the universe's point of
 view? Absolutely positively nothing. To win this argument all you have to do
 is explain to me how instantly changing the position of 2 identical objects
 changes anything from anyone's or anything's point of view. You can't.

  The 1-view attributed by an outsider, not the 1-view from its own pov.
  You continue to talk like if that was the same thing.


 That's because it IS the same thing, you are no better at determining when
 you and your double exchange positions than a outside third party observer
 is. Objectively or subjectively and first second third or ANY point of view,
 no person, no God, no thing, NOTHING can tell that anything has happened
 when 2 identical things instantly exchange positions. A person's 1-views on
 their own 1-view CAN IN FACT BE DUPLICATED. And why should this fact really
 be so surprising, information can be duplicated and there is no difference
 between one hydrogen atom and another, so where's the problem? But of course
 I know what the problem is, the conclusion is odd, not illogical, not self
 contradictory, just odd. Well there is no law of physics or logic that says
 reality can't be odd.


   Information was not annihilated, matter was not annihilated, energy
  was not annihilated, so just what was annihilated in Helsinki?


  Its body.


 But the Helsinki man's body still exists, only now it's in Moscow and
 Washington, but people travel all the time without apparent loss of personal
 identity.


  If your prefer, the local information which was available in Helsinki is
  erased after having been read and sent to W and to M.


 No it has not, both the Washington and Moscow man remember being the
 Helsinki man just fine, no information has been lost; true neither of them
 continues to receive sensory information 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread John Clark
On Sun, Mar 11, 2012  David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

 John, I hope you will not think me impertinent, but you're expending a
 great deal of time and energy arguing with an elaborate series of
 straw men.  No doubt this is great fun and highly entertaining, but
 would you consider the alternative of requesting clarification of the
 real point at issue?  It's painful to see you repeatedly arguing past
 it.


If your thinking were clear and you understood what  the real point at
issue was and you knew of a key question I have not answered you would
have certainly asked it somewhere in the above; but you did not I think
because you could not, and that fact makes me believe your thinking is
naive simplistic and commonplace.  Prove me wrong.

  John K Clark

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Mar 2012, at 06:33, John Clark wrote:




On Sat, Mar 10, 2012 at 3:29 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


 and it is just very simple, for all people up to now, that the 1- 
views on their own 1-view is not duplicated.


Well, if you haven't before considered the possibility that this  
obvious common sense assumption could be dead wrong it is  
certainly high time you did!


It simply cannot. Comp would be violated in case the diary contains a  
feeling split experience. The guy can believe he is split, because  
he knows the protocol and trust the machinery and the people handling  
it. At no point he can know, by personal experience, that he is split.  
That information will not appear in any diary.
We use the same common sense as the one used to grasp addition and  
multiplication.




Yes, the assumption that the 1-views on their own 1-view can not be  
duplicated is indeed simple, very very very simple, but not simple  
in a good way. Theories should be as simple as possible, but not  
simpler, because then they just become stupid.


Sure. But here, the theory is comp. The fact that the 1-view are not  
duplicated, from their own 1-view pov, can be justified by the fact  
that the read-cut-reconstitution are not part of the experience. Like  
the reconstitution delay in step 2, those events does not impact on  
the brain processing (given that by assumption we reconstitute the  
person at the right substitution level from the relevant instantaneous  
state description of the brain. It is literally trivial.



I insist that in my symmetrical room experiment there can be (or at  
least should not be) any doubt that the person's 1-views on their  
own 1-view HAS IN FACT BEEN DUPLICATED.


1) You said yourself there is only one consciousness in that case.
2) you confuse the 1-view on the 1-view on the 1-view with the 3-view  
on the 1-view on the 1-view. You really avoid putting yourself in the  
place of one of those reconstituted person. But you have to be able to  
do that for any of them.
When we consider the 1-view pov, we have to stick with it, and not get  
out in any 3p view, which miss the point of the initial question. With  
any 3p view, there are no indeterminacy, we already know that, with  
comp, but the question bears on the next 1-view, which feels to be  
unique by the trivial argument above.
3) Let us come back to the original thought experience. The  
indeterminacy appears when they open the door of the reconstitution  
boxes, which is a deterministic event from the 3p view, but can't be  
deterministic from the 1p-views.





 but they feel like not having been duplicated

Yes that is the entire point, you could be a copy of Bruno Marchal,  
you could be only 5 minutes old, I could have used generic atoms and  
information on how to assemble them from the original Bruno Marchal,  
so now you feel just like Bruno Marchal and your memories of being a  
child are just as vivid as the memories the original Bruno Marchal  
has.


Yes.




 they know only intellectually the possible existence of the other

That is quite untrue, both you (the copy) and you (the original  
Bruno Marchal) are in that symmetrical room and can see each other  
plain as day, and until random quantum fluctuations become  
significant it will be as if you're looking in a mirror for both of  
you, the two of you will both see somebody who looks just like  
Bruno Marchal who is moving and speaking in synchronization with the  
way you move and speak.


I don't assume QM. The point is that when opening the door (in the  
initial thought experiment), they break the symmetry and have each a  
personal different experiences, which they were unable to predict  
before opening the door.






 and in my symmetrical room thought experiment I make it crystal  
clear that the first person personal subjective perspective CAN be  
duplicated just like everything else can be.


 Crystal clear?

Yes crystal clear, as clear as the azure sky of deepest summer.


If the 1-views have been duplicated, then their are identical, (before  
they open the door this makes sense). But then there is only one 1- 
view, as you said yourself. But then this means that the 3-duplication  
has not entailed a duplication of the 1-views. And this is confirmed  
when they open the door, the 1-views are entire and unique in front of  
an non expectable location.





 It only shows that the 1-view is duplicated from a 3-view pov, not  
from the 1-view perspective.


Explain to me how the 1-view perspective of anybody has changed from  
any perspective you care to name, any at all. Before the switch you,  
from your first person perspective, consciously feel like you are  
looking at somebody who looks, moves, acts, and speaks exactly like  
you do, it's as if you're looking into a mirror;


Without the vertical symmetry. If my face is not symmetrical, I might  
not recognize myself (like in the novel despair by Nabokov). But  
this 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread John Mikes
John,
'te bartender cuts in...' - I believe David indeed has no idea what the
real point in issue may be - he would have been addressing it. There is *NO
*real point.
In those thought experiments (euphemism for phantasm to justify points of
non-existence) certain prerequisites are also needed (additional phantasms)
and justification for them, too. Then there are 'conclusions' imaginary and
the consequences of such - built in.
I admire the patience of Bruno replying to all those (circular?
fantasy-related?) posts (I am not relating to your posts) - I lost the
endurance to follow all of them lately. I read a lot of David's posts and
think your expressed ...belie(f)ve your (i.e. David's) thinking is naive
simplistic and commonplace.  is wrong.
It is a shame, because you seem to be a well-thinking and well-educated guy
who works with well-crafted logical argumentation.

I cannot raise my voice for/against indeterminacy because of my agnostic
worldview that postulates lots of unknown/unknowable factors influencing
our decisions - together with factors we know of and acknowledge - so
uncertainty may be ignorance-based, not only haphazardous. A
'deterministic' totality, however, is a matter of belief for me -
unjustified as well - because of the partial 'order' we detect in the so
far knowable nature (negating 'random' occurrences that would screw-up any
order, even the limited local ones).
My worldview is my 'faith' - not subject to discussion.

Regards
John Mikes




On Sun, Mar 11, 2012 at 1:00 PM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Sun, Mar 11, 2012  David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

  John, I hope you will not think me impertinent, but you're expending a
 great deal of time and energy arguing with an elaborate series of
 straw men.  No doubt this is great fun and highly entertaining, but
 would you consider the alternative of requesting clarification of the
 real point at issue?  It's painful to see you repeatedly arguing past
 it.


 If your thinking were clear and you understood what  the real point at
 issue was and you knew of a key question I have not answered you would
 have certainly asked it somewhere in the above; but you did not I think
 because you could not, and that fact makes me believe your thinking is
 naive simplistic and commonplace.  Prove me wrong.

   John K Clark

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread R AM
This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about the whole
point of the exercise.

I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future content of
subjective experience is indeterminated? Although comp might seem to entail
100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?

However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be anything
at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we conclude that
comp is false?

Ricardo.

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread Stephen P. King

On 3/11/2012 4:44 PM, R AM wrote:


This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about the 
whole point of the exercise.


I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future content of 
subjective experience is indeterminated? Although comp might seem to 
entail 100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?


However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only 
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be 
anything at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we 
conclude that comp is false?


Ricardo.


Hi Ricardo,

I think that you are considering the White Rabbit and Harry Potter 
problems, these are the possible pathologies of COMP. Unless there is a 
natural way to prevent their occurance, then yes, COMP is falsified. 
One problem with your question is that it seems to assume that the 
phrase future experience has a meaning the same way that past 
experience has a meaning.


onward!

Stephen

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread acw

On 3/11/2012 21:44, R AM wrote:

This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about the whole
point of the exercise.

I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future content of
subjective experience is indeterminated? Although comp might seem to entail
100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?
3p indeterminacy in the form of the UD*, 1p determinacy from the 
perspective of those minds relative to bodies in the UD*.


However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be anything
at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we conclude that
comp is false?
You're basically presenting the White Rabbit problem here. I used to 
wonder if that is indeed the case, but after considering it further, it 
doesn't seem to be: your 1p is identified with some particular abstract 
machine - that part is mostly determinate and deterministic (or 
quasi-deterministic if you allow some leeway as to what constitutes 
persona identity) in its behavior, but below that substitution level, 
anything can change, as long as that machine is implemented 
correctly/consistently. If the level is low enough and most of the 
machines implementing the lower layers that eventually implement our 
mind correspond to one world (such as ours), that would imply reasonably 
stable experience and some MWI-like laws of physics - not white noise 
experiences. That is to say that if we don't experience white noise, 
statistically our experiences will be stable - this does not mean that 
we won't have really unusual jumps or changes in laws-of-physics or 
experience when our measure is greatly reduced (such as the current 
statistically winning machines no longer being able to implement your 
mind - 3p death from the point of view of others).


Also, one possible way of showing COMP false is to show that such stable 
implementations are impossible, however this seems not obvious to me. A 
more practical concern would be to consider the case of what would 
happen if the substitution level is chosen slightly wrong or too high - 
would it lead to too unstable 1p or merely just allow the SIM(Substrate 
Independent Mind) to more easily pick which lower-level machines 
implement it (there's another thought experiment which shows how this 
could be done, if a machine can find one of its own Godel-number).


Ricardo.




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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread Pierz
I'm surprised by John's apparent failure to grasp the point too. I'm
used to John's self-certainty, but I'm not accustomed to him being
dumb. John, you seem hung up on the point about duplicating the 1-p
perspective and whether or not this is possible, but it all seems to
be a matter of semantics. In your symmetrical room, you've essentially
created fungible instances of a consciousness - identical in all
respects, but with *possibility* to diverge at any moment. Before the
duplication, no possibility of divergence existed. Such a scenario is
not a contradiction of comp or even relevant to the UDA at all really,
as far as I can tell. You've merely delayed the moment at which the
diaries diverge. You agree that the two identical consciousnesses do
not experience themselves in two places at once, neither before they
diverge from fungibility nor after, so you agree with Bruno. That's
the only point that matters. You're stuck on arguing about whether 1p
can be duplicated while missing the point that all Bruno is really
saying when he claims that 1p can't be plural is that the subjective
experience of 1-p cannot be plural, i.e., you can't feel yourself to
be in two places at once. Your comments indicate you see this. You
seem to be trying to read something more into this step of the UDA
than there is. It's a trivial step. I'm sure if we reduce it to
computers you'll agree. Let's take a computer that receives external
input and records it in memory - attached cam. Take that computer,
stop it, dismantle it and duplicate it in two different locations. The
new computers are switched on. Now their memory traces (diaries) show
a discontinuity, switching, as per teleportation, to their new
locations. If their new locations were visualIy identical, sure, their
memory states won't diverge yet, but that's not the point. Now f comp
is true, then these machines might be conscious machines, so the
memory trace will correspond to two separate subjectivities. If you
agree with all this, you agree with Bruno and there's nothing more to
argue about.

On Mar 12, 6:36 am, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:
 John,
 'te bartender cuts in...' - I believe David indeed has no idea what the
 real point in issue may be - he would have been addressing it. There is *NO
 *real point.
 In those thought experiments (euphemism for phantasm to justify points of
 non-existence) certain prerequisites are also needed (additional phantasms)
 and justification for them, too. Then there are 'conclusions' imaginary and
 the consequences of such - built in.
 I admire the patience of Bruno replying to all those (circular?
 fantasy-related?) posts (I am not relating to your posts) - I lost the
 endurance to follow all of them lately. I read a lot of David's posts and
 think your expressed ...belie(f)ve your (i.e. David's) thinking is naive
 simplistic and commonplace.  is wrong.
 It is a shame, because you seem to be a well-thinking and well-educated guy
 who works with well-crafted logical argumentation.

 I cannot raise my voice for/against indeterminacy because of my agnostic
 worldview that postulates lots of unknown/unknowable factors influencing
 our decisions - together with factors we know of and acknowledge - so
 uncertainty may be ignorance-based, not only haphazardous. A
 'deterministic' totality, however, is a matter of belief for me -
 unjustified as well - because of the partial 'order' we detect in the so
 far knowable nature (negating 'random' occurrences that would screw-up any
 order, even the limited local ones).
 My worldview is my 'faith' - not subject to discussion.

 Regards
 John Mikes







 On Sun, Mar 11, 2012 at 1:00 PM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:
  On Sun, Mar 11, 2012  David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

   John, I hope you will not think me impertinent, but you're expending a
  great deal of time and energy arguing with an elaborate series of
  straw men.  No doubt this is great fun and highly entertaining, but
  would you consider the alternative of requesting clarification of the
  real point at issue?  It's painful to see you repeatedly arguing past
  it.

  If your thinking were clear and you understood what  the real point at
  issue was and you knew of a key question I have not answered you would
  have certainly asked it somewhere in the above; but you did not I think
  because you could not, and that fact makes me believe your thinking is
  naive simplistic and commonplace.  Prove me wrong.

    John K Clark

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread meekerdb

On 3/11/2012 2:43 PM, acw wrote:

On 3/11/2012 21:44, R AM wrote:

This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about the whole
point of the exercise.

I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future content of
subjective experience is indeterminated? Although comp might seem to entail
100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?
3p indeterminacy in the form of the UD*, 1p determinacy from the perspective of those 
minds relative to bodies in the UD*.


However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be anything
at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we conclude that
comp is false?
You're basically presenting the White Rabbit problem here. I used to wonder if that is 
indeed the case, but after considering it further, it doesn't seem to be: your 1p is 
identified with some particular abstract machine - that part is mostly determinate and 
deterministic (or quasi-deterministic if you allow some leeway as to what constitutes 
persona identity) in its behavior, but below that substitution level, anything can 
change, as long as that machine is implemented correctly/consistently. If the level is 
low enough and most of the machines implementing the lower layers that eventually 
implement our mind correspond to one world (such as ours), that would imply reasonably 
stable experience and some MWI-like laws of physics - not white noise experiences. That 
is to say that if we don't experience white noise, statistically our experiences will be 
stable - this does not mean that we won't have really unusual jumps or changes in 
laws-of-physics or experience when our measure is greatly reduced (such as the current 
statistically winning machines no longer being able to implement your mind - 3p death 
from the point of view of others).


This implies that our measure is strongly correlated with the regularity of physics.  I'm 
not sure you can show that, but if it's true it means that physics is fundamental to our 
existence, even if physics can be explained by the UD.  Only worlds with extremely 
consistent physics can support consciousness (which seems unlikely to me).


Brent



Also, one possible way of showing COMP false is to show that such stable implementations 
are impossible, however this seems not obvious to me. A more practical concern would be 
to consider the case of what would happen if the substitution level is chosen slightly 
wrong or too high - would it lead to too unstable 1p or merely just allow the 
SIM(Substrate Independent Mind) to more easily pick which lower-level machines implement 
it (there's another thought experiment which shows how this could be done, if a machine 
can find one of its own Godel-number).


Ricardo.






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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread acw

On 3/12/2012 00:39, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 2:43 PM, acw wrote:

On 3/11/2012 21:44, R AM wrote:

This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about the
whole
point of the exercise.

I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future content of
subjective experience is indeterminated? Although comp might seem to
entail
100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?

3p indeterminacy in the form of the UD*, 1p determinacy from the
perspective of those minds relative to bodies in the UD*.

I did make a mistake when typing that up:
3p indeterminacy in the form of the UD*, 1p determinacy from the 
perspective of those minds relative to bodies in the UD* was supposed 
to be 3p determinacy in the form of the UD*, 1p indeterminacy from the 
perspective of those minds relative to bodies in the UD*.


However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be
anything
at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we conclude that
comp is false?

You're basically presenting the White Rabbit problem here. I used to
wonder if that is indeed the case, but after considering it further,
it doesn't seem to be: your 1p is identified with some particular
abstract machine - that part is mostly determinate and deterministic
(or quasi-deterministic if you allow some leeway as to what
constitutes persona identity) in its behavior, but below that
substitution level, anything can change, as long as that machine is
implemented correctly/consistently. If the level is low enough and
most of the machines implementing the lower layers that eventually
implement our mind correspond to one world (such as ours), that would
imply reasonably stable experience and some MWI-like laws of physics -
not white noise experiences. That is to say that if we don't
experience white noise, statistically our experiences will be stable -
this does not mean that we won't have really unusual jumps or
changes in laws-of-physics or experience when our measure is greatly
reduced (such as the current statistically winning machines no longer
being able to implement your mind - 3p death from the point of view of
others).


This implies that our measure is strongly correlated with the regularity
of physics. I'm not sure you can show that, but if it's true it means
that physics is fundamental to our existence, even if physics can be
explained by the UD. Only worlds with extremely consistent physics can
support consciousness (which seems unlikely to me).
Maybe, it's more of a conjecture, I don't posses the theoretical tools 
to make some headway on the issue for now.
As for physics being essential, I'm not 100% sure, it might be for us, 
humans with physical brains and bodies, but I don't see why it would be 
for a SIM, or for a detailed emulation of a human body/brain: consider 
the case of such a SIMs living in a VR(Virtual Reality) simulation - 
they wouldn't really care what the underlying substrate would be, but 
then, they would know they are in a simulation (to some degree). A more 
interesting question might be not about SIMs living in VRs, but those 
beings which live in a physical world and have bodies and are self-aware 
of those bodies and their own embedding in such a physical world - what 
possible statistically stable laws of physics would be required for such 
beings (I think Tegmark called them Self-Aware Substructures)?  Since we 
know we're in such a situation, what laws of physics are possible that 
have conscious self-aware observers with 'physical' bodies?




Brent



Also, one possible way of showing COMP false is to show that such
stable implementations are impossible, however this seems not obvious
to me. A more practical concern would be to consider the case of what
would happen if the substitution level is chosen slightly wrong or too
high - would it lead to too unstable 1p or merely just allow the
SIM(Substrate Independent Mind) to more easily pick which lower-level
machines implement it (there's another thought experiment which shows
how this could be done, if a machine can find one of its own
Godel-number).


Ricardo.









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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread Stephen P. King

On 3/11/2012 7:39 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 2:43 PM, acw wrote:

On 3/11/2012 21:44, R AM wrote:
This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about the 
whole

point of the exercise.

I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future content of
subjective experience is indeterminated? Although comp might seem to 
entail

100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?
3p indeterminacy in the form of the UD*, 1p determinacy from the 
perspective of those minds relative to bodies in the UD*.


However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be 
anything

at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we conclude that
comp is false?
You're basically presenting the White Rabbit problem here. I used 
to wonder if that is indeed the case, but after considering it 
further, it doesn't seem to be: your 1p is identified with some 
particular abstract machine - that part is mostly determinate and 
deterministic (or quasi-deterministic if you allow some leeway as to 
what constitutes persona identity) in its behavior, but below that 
substitution level, anything can change, as long as that machine is 
implemented correctly/consistently. If the level is low enough and 
most of the machines implementing the lower layers that eventually 
implement our mind correspond to one world (such as ours), that would 
imply reasonably stable experience and some MWI-like laws of physics 
- not white noise experiences. That is to say that if we don't 
experience white noise, statistically our experiences will be stable 
- this does not mean that we won't have really unusual jumps or 
changes in laws-of-physics or experience when our measure is greatly 
reduced (such as the current statistically winning machines no longer 
being able to implement your mind - 3p death from the point of view 
of others).


This implies that our measure is strongly correlated with the 
regularity of physics.  I'm not sure you can show that, but if it's 
true it means that physics is fundamental to our existence, even if 
physics can be explained by the UD.  Only worlds with extremely 
consistent physics can support consciousness (which seems unlikely to 
me).


Brent

Hi Brent,

I do not understand how you think that only worlds with extremely 
consistent physics can support consciousness is unlikely. Are you only 
considering a single momentary instance of consciousness? It is quite 
easy to prove that if there exist multiple conscious entities that can 
communicate coherently with each other (in the sense that they can 
understand each other) then the physics of their common world will 
necessarily be maximally consistent as it if where not then pathological 
Harry Potterisms will occur that would prevent the arbitrary extension 
of their experience. Additionally, it would be extremely difficult for 
such worlds to have conservation laws. It is because of this line of 
reasoning that I resist the Platonic interpretation of COMP as it puts 
pathological universes on the same level of likelihood as 
non-pathological ones.


Onward!

Stephen

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread meekerdb

On 3/11/2012 8:03 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 3/11/2012 7:39 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/11/2012 2:43 PM, acw wrote:

On 3/11/2012 21:44, R AM wrote:

This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about the whole
point of the exercise.

I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future content of
subjective experience is indeterminated? Although comp might seem to entail
100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?
3p indeterminacy in the form of the UD*, 1p determinacy from the perspective of those 
minds relative to bodies in the UD*.


However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only
indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be anything
at all. But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we conclude that
comp is false?
You're basically presenting the White Rabbit problem here. I used to wonder if that 
is indeed the case, but after considering it further, it doesn't seem to be: your 1p 
is identified with some particular abstract machine - that part is mostly determinate 
and deterministic (or quasi-deterministic if you allow some leeway as to what 
constitutes persona identity) in its behavior, but below that substitution level, 
anything can change, as long as that machine is implemented correctly/consistently. If 
the level is low enough and most of the machines implementing the lower layers that 
eventually implement our mind correspond to one world (such as ours), that would imply 
reasonably stable experience and some MWI-like laws of physics - not white noise 
experiences. That is to say that if we don't experience white noise, statistically our 
experiences will be stable - this does not mean that we won't have really unusual 
jumps or changes in laws-of-physics or experience when our measure is greatly 
reduced (such as the current statistically winning machines no longer being able to 
implement your mind - 3p death from the point of view of others).


This implies that our measure is strongly correlated with the regularity of physics.  
I'm not sure you can show that, but if it's true it means that physics is fundamental 
to our existence, even if physics can be explained by the UD.  Only worlds with 
extremely consistent physics can support consciousness (which seems unlikely to me).


Brent

Hi Brent,

I do not understand how you think that only worlds with extremely consistent 
physics can support consciousness is unlikely. Are you only considering a single 
momentary instance of consciousness? It is quite easy to prove that if there exist 
multiple conscious entities that can communicate coherently with each other (in the 
sense that they can understand each other) then the physics of their common world will 
necessarily be maximally consistent as it if where not then pathological Harry 
Potterisms will occur that would prevent the arbitrary extension of their experience. 


I don't know what you mean by 'the arbitrary extension of their experience'.  How would 
magical events prevent anything.  We  have reports of miracles all the time from less 
scientific places and times and they don't seem to prevent anything.  We tend to not 
believe them because they violate the physics which we suppose to be consistent in time 
and place - but you can't invoke that as evidence that physics is consistent on pain of 
vicious circularity.


Additionally, it would be extremely difficult for such worlds to have conservation laws. 


But the symmetry principles that result in conservation laws are arguably human 
selections.  We pay attention to and build 'laws' on what does not depend on particular 
time/place/orientation; so may conservation of momentum and energy are (at least 
approximately) inevitable.


There is also the problem that according to current theories are many possible kinds of 
physics even if you limit them to just those consistent with string theory, much less 
Classical physics.


But my main point was conditional.  IF consciousness is strongly dependent on physics then 
Bruno's program of replacing physics with arithmetic isn't going anywhere because 
arithmetic will produce too many kinds of worlds and only by studying physics will we be 
able to learn about our world.


It is because of this line of reasoning that I resist the Platonic interpretation of 
COMP as it puts pathological universes on the same level of likelihood as 
non-pathological ones.


That's the question.  Is there some canonical measure that makes the non-pathological ones 
overwhelmingly likely?


Brent




Onward!

Stephen



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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-11 Thread Stephen P. King

On 3/11/2012 8:30 PM, acw wrote:

On 3/12/2012 00:39, meekerdb wrote:

This implies that our measure is strongly correlated with the regularity
of physics. I'm not sure you can show that, but if it's true it means
that physics is fundamental to our existence, even if physics can be
explained by the UD. Only worlds with extremely consistent physics can
support consciousness (which seems unlikely to me).
Maybe, it's more of a conjecture, I don't posses the theoretical tools 
to make some headway on the issue for now.
As for physics being essential, I'm not 100% sure, it might be for us, 
humans with physical brains and bodies, but I don't see why it would 
be for a SIM, or for a detailed emulation of a human body/brain: 
consider the case of such a SIMs living in a VR(Virtual Reality) 
simulation - they wouldn't really care what the underlying substrate 
would be, but then, they would know they are in a simulation (to some 
degree). A more interesting question might be not about SIMs living in 
VRs, but those beings which live in a physical world and have bodies 
and are self-aware of those bodies and their own embedding in such a 
physical world - what possible statistically stable laws of physics 
would be required for such beings (I think Tegmark called them 
Self-Aware Substructures)?  Since we know we're in such a situation, 
what laws of physics are possible that have conscious self-aware 
observers with 'physical' bodies?


Hi,

Could it be that we are tacitly assuming that our notion of Virtual 
is such that there always exists a standard what is the Real version? 
If it is not possible to tell if a given object of experience is real or 
virtual, why do we default to it being virtual, as if it was somehow 
possible to compare the object in question with an unassailably real 
version? As I see it, if we can somehow show that a given object of 
experience is the _best possible_ simulation (modulo available 
resources) then it is real, as a better or more real simulation of 
it is impossible to generate. Our physical world is 'real' simply 
because there does not exist a better simulation of it.


Onward!

Stephen

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Mar 2012, at 06:22, John Clark wrote:

On Thu, Mar 8, 2012 at 1:47 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


 You persist in ignoring the difference between the 1-view from the  
1-view pov, which is what I usually mean by 1-views, and the 1-views  
that an outsider can attribute to other people


So after you have been duplicated there is still a difference  
between 1-view pov and 1-views that an outsider can attribute to  
other people. However you never make clear exactly why it can not  
be duplicated,


You are supposed to do the thought experiment, and this by assuming  
comp, and it is just very simple, for all people up to now, that the 1- 
views on their own 1-view is not duplicated. If the 3p description are  
numerically identical, like in your symmetrical room thought  
experiment, then there is only one 1-view, and once they  
differentiate, there are two different 1-view, but they feel like not  
having been duplicated (they know only intellectually the possible  
existence of the other), and that feeling is the 1-view.





and in my symmetrical room thought experiment I make it crystal  
clear that the first person personal subjective perspective CAN be  
duplicated just like everything else can be.


Crystal clear? It only shows that the 1-view is duplicated from a 3- 
view pov, not from the 1-view perspective.






  I think there is a thought experiment that can resolve this  
issue: You are a copy of Bruno Marshal made as precisely as  
Heisenberg's law allows and you are now facing the original Bruno  
Marshal in a symmetrical room, thus the two of you are receiving  
identical sensory input and thus act identically. I now use a Star  
Trek brand transporter to instantly exchange your position with the  
original, or if you prefer I leave your bodies alone and just  
exchange the two brains. There is no way subjectively you or the  
original Bruno Marshal would notice that anything had happened, and  
objective outside observers would not notice anything had happened  
either. There would not even be a way to tell if the machine was  
actually working, I could even be lying about having a transporter.  
Who knows who cares?


 OK. And?

And I'm delighted you said OK, so you agree that subjectively it  
makes no difference which one is the copy and which one is the  
original, and objectively it makes no difference which one is the  
copy and which one is the original; and being a man of logic you  
must therefore conclude that there is simply no difference between  
the two in any way whatsoever, including the point of view.


Yes, and that is why before the differentiation, there is only one 1- 
view-on-the 1-view. This just means that the duplication/ 
differentiation did not yet occur. But the probability/uncertainty  
question bears on the output of the self--localization experience  
after the differentiation has occurred from a 3p view.





  Of course if there were a unsymmetrical change in the  
environment or there was a random quantum fluctuation that made the  
people different then things would evolve, well, differently, but at  
the instant of duplication they would still be identical. So if  
subjectively it makes no difference and objectively it makes no  
difference and even the very universe itself isn't sure if a switch  
had actually been made or not then I make the very reasonable  
assumption that it just makes no difference, and although there are  
two bodies and two brains in that symmetrical room there is only one  
intelligence and only one consciousness and only one point of view.


 OK. And?

No and is necessary this time because that pretty much covers it  
all. I'm delighted you said OK, so you agree the point of view can  
be duplicated just like anything else,


The 1-view attributed by an outsider, not the 1-view from its own pov.  
You continue to talk like if that was the same thing.



you agree that it does not matter how many bodies or brains there  
are in that symmetrical room because there is only one mind,


... which mean there have not been duplicated. So you contradict what  
you say yourself above.




there is only one intelligence and only one consciousness and only  
one point of view. If we agree on all that I don't see why more  
needs to be said, but apparently you do.


It is just the beginning of a long reasoning. You have to come back to  
the original thought experiment.





 You tell me you are duplicated without precising if you talk on  
the 1-view, 3-view, 3-view of 1-view.


Yes, if subjectively and objectively there is no difference between  
various points of view then I refuse to pretend that there is a  
distinction.


But there will be a difference after the copies diverge, and the  
probability question bears on the future 1-views once they have  
differentiated.





 That would be like aa duplication W W, or M M, not W, M.

Bruno, tell the truth, when you wrote the above cryptic sentence did  
you 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-10 Thread John Clark
On Sat, Mar 10, 2012 at 3:29 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 and it is just very simple, for all people up to now, that the 1-views on
 their own 1-view is not duplicated.


Well, if you haven't before considered the possibility that this obvious
common sense assumption could be dead wrong it is certainly high time you
did! Yes, the assumption that the 1-views on their own 1-view can not be
duplicated is indeed simple, very very very simple, but not simple in a
good way. Theories should be as simple as possible, but not simpler,
because then they just become stupid. I insist that in my symmetrical room
experiment there can be (or at least should not be) any doubt that the
person's 1-views on their own 1-view HAS IN FACT BEEN DUPLICATED.

 but they feel like not having been duplicated


Yes that is the entire point, you could be a copy of Bruno Marchal, you
could be only 5 minutes old, I could have used generic atoms and
information on how to assemble them from the original Bruno Marchal, so now
you feel just like Bruno Marchal and your memories of being a child are
just as vivid as the memories the original Bruno Marchal has.

 they know only intellectually the possible existence of the other


That is quite untrue, both you (the copy) and you (the original Bruno
Marchal) are in that symmetrical room and can see each other plain as day,
and until random quantum fluctuations become significant it will be as if
you're looking in a mirror for both of you, the two of you will both
see somebody who looks just like Bruno Marchal who is moving and speaking
in synchronization with the way you move and speak.

 and in my symmetrical room thought experiment I make it crystal clear
 that the first person personal subjective perspective CAN be duplicated
 just like everything else can be.


  Crystal clear?


Yes crystal clear, as clear as the azure sky of deepest summer.

 It only shows that the 1-view is duplicated from a 3-view pov, not from
 the 1-view perspective.


Explain to me how the 1-view perspective of anybody has changed from any
perspective you care to name, any at all. Before the switch you, from your
first person perspective, consciously feel like you are looking at somebody
who looks, moves, acts, and speaks exactly like you do, it's as if you're
looking into a mirror; and after the switch you, from your first person
perspective consciously feel like you are looking at somebody who looks,
moves, acts, and speaks exactly like you do, it's as if you're looking into
a mirror. What has changed from the original's point of view, what has
changed from the copy's point of view, what has changed from a third person
observer's point of view, what has changed from the universe's point of
view? Absolutely positively nothing. To win this argument all you have to
do is explain to me how instantly changing the position of 2 identical
objects changes anything from anyone's or anything's point of view. You
can't.

 The 1-view attributed by an outsider, not the 1-view from its own pov.
 You continue to talk like if that was the same thing.


That's because it IS the same thing, you are no better at determining when
you and your double exchange positions than a outside third party observer
is. Objectively or subjectively and first second third or ANY point of
view, no person, no God, no thing, NOTHING can tell that anything has
happened when 2 identical things instantly exchange positions. A person's
1-views on their own 1-view CAN IN FACT BE DUPLICATED. And why should this
fact really be so surprising, information can be duplicated and there is no
difference between one hydrogen atom and another, so where's the problem?
But of course I know what the problem is, the conclusion is odd, not
illogical, not self contradictory, just odd. Well there is no law of
physics or logic that says reality can't be odd.

  Information was not annihilated, matter was not annihilated, energy was
 not annihilated, so just what was annihilated in Helsinki?


  Its body.


But the Helsinki man's body still exists, only now it's in Moscow and
Washington, but people travel all the time without apparent loss of
personal identity.

 If your prefer, the local information which was available in Helsinki is
 erased after having been read and sent to W and to M.


No it has not, both the Washington and Moscow man remember being the
Helsinki man just fine, no information has been lost; true neither of them
continues to receive sensory information from Helsinki, but the same would
be true if the Helsinki man had just gotten on a jet for Moscow.

  you don't need elaborate thought experiments involving duplicating
 chambers to realize that you can never know for sure what you will see when
 you open a door, surprises are always possible.


  We are in the course of a reasoning. As you illustrate, nothing is
 obvious


Agreed.

 so in this case we have to explain why this particular form of surprise
 is guarantied by the comp hypothesis.

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-09 Thread John Clark
On Thu, Mar 8, 2012 at 7:10 PM, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:


  After duplication and reconstitution in W and M the two copies cannot
 possibly have
 identical perspectives.


Why not?

 They are not in a symmetrical room


It's my thought experiment and if I say they are in a  symmetrical room
room then they are in a  symmetrical room room


  if you stuck a pin in the one in W, surely you wouldn't expect the one
 in M to flinch?


No the other one would not flinch, but then their environments were
different, something happened to one and not the other so they are no
longer identical and have diverged.

 John K Clark

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-09 Thread David Nyman
On 9 March 2012 18:47, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 No the other one would not flinch, but then their environments were
 different, something happened to one and not the other so they are no longer
 identical and have diverged.

We appear to have been at cross-purposes.  Let us return to the
original scenario.  Someone is copied and annihilated at H and
reconstituted at W and M (i.e. two different environments).  Let's
also say, for the sake of clarity, that it is known in advance that on
arrival a pin will be stuck in the copy at W, and a cup of tea handed
to the copy at M.  Now consider this in terms of the 1-view from its
own perspective: two mutually-exclusive experiences - i.e. a nasty
jab at W and a refreshing drink at M.  In both cases there will be a
memory of originating at H and being unsure of being abused or
refreshed on arrival.  In neither case will there be any remaining
doubt about the upshot.  Any problem with this?

David

 On Thu, Mar 8, 2012 at 7:10 PM, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:


  After duplication and reconstitution in W and M the two copies cannot
  possibly have
 identical perspectives.


 Why not?

  They are not in a symmetrical room


 It's my thought experiment and if I say they are in a  symmetrical room room
 then they are in a  symmetrical room room


  if you stuck a pin in the one in W, surely you wouldn't expect the one
  in M to flinch?


 No the other one would not flinch, but then their environments were
 different, something happened to one and not the other so they are no longer
 identical and have diverged.

  John K Clark



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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-09 Thread John Clark
On Thu, Mar 8, 2012 at 1:47 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 You persist in ignoring the difference between the 1-view from the 1-view
 pov, which is what I usually mean by 1-views, and the 1-views that an
 outsider can attribute to other people


So after you have been duplicated there is still a difference between
1-view pov and 1-views that an outsider can attribute to other people.
However you never make clear exactly why it can not be duplicated, and in
my symmetrical room thought experiment I make it crystal clear that the
first person personal subjective perspective CAN be duplicated just like
everything else can be.

  I think there is a thought experiment that can resolve this issue: You
 are a copy of Bruno Marshal made as precisely as Heisenberg's law allows
 and you are now facing the original Bruno Marshal in a symmetrical room,
 thus the two of you are receiving identical sensory input and thus act
 identically. I now use a Star Trek brand transporter to instantly exchange
 your position with the original, or if you prefer I leave your bodies alone
 and just exchange the two brains. There is no way subjectively you or the
 original Bruno Marshal would notice that anything had happened, and
 objective outside observers would not notice anything had happened either.
 There would not even be a way to tell if the machine was actually working,
 I could even be lying about having a transporter. Who knows who cares?


  OK. And?


And I'm delighted you said OK, so you agree that subjectively it makes no
difference which one is the copy and which one is the original, and
objectively it makes no difference which one is the copy and which one is
the original; and being a man of logic you must therefore conclude that
there is simply no difference between the two in any way whatsoever,
including the point of view.

  Of course if there were a unsymmetrical change in the environment or
 there was a random quantum fluctuation that made the people different then
 things would evolve, well, differently, but at the instant of duplication
 they would still be identical. So if subjectively it makes no difference
 and objectively it makes no difference and even the very universe itself
 isn't sure if a switch had actually been made or not then I make the very
 reasonable assumption that it just makes no difference, and although there
 are two bodies and two brains in that symmetrical room there is only one
 intelligence and only one consciousness and only one point of view.

  OK. And?


No and is necessary this time because that pretty much covers it all. I'm
delighted you said OK, so you agree the point of view can be duplicated
just like anything else, you agree that it does not matter how many bodies
or brains there are in that symmetrical room because there is only one
mind, there is only one intelligence and only one consciousness and only
one point of view. If we agree on all that I don't see why more needs to be
said, but apparently you do.

 You tell me you are duplicated without precising if you talk on the
 1-view, 3-view, 3-view of 1-view.


Yes, if subjectively and objectively there is no difference between various
points of view then I refuse to pretend that there is a distinction.

 That would be like aa duplication W W, or M M, not W, M.


Bruno, tell the truth, when you wrote the above cryptic sentence did you
honestly think it would make anything clear to any conscious entity on this
planet?

 Do you agree with this principle: if today I can be sure that tomorrow I
 will be uncertain about the outcome of some experience, then I am today
 uncertain about the outcome of that future experience.


Obviously I agree. The future is not predictable in theory and even less so
in practice, but I don't think that fact tells us much about personal
identity.

 Let consider again the guy in Helsinki. He will be read and annihilate
 [...]


I'm sorry but before I can get any further in your thought experiment,
you're going to have to explain just what you mean by annihilated. I'm
confused because you go on to say that just before he was annihilated the
information on the position and momentum of all the atoms in his body was
measured and that information and generic atoms were used to make the
bodies and brains of the Helsinki man in Washington and in Moscow; but all
that is just equivalent to saying that the source of his external stimuli
was switched from Helsinki to Washington and Moscow. Information was not
annihilated, matter was not annihilated, energy was not annihilated, so
just what was annihilated in Helsinki?

 The guy in Helsinky knew this in advance, and can apply the principle
 above to say that he is uncertain today, before the split, what he will see
 when opening


Yeah but you don't need elaborate thought experiments involving duplicating
chambers to realize that you can never know for sure what you will see when
you open a door, surprises are always possible.

 when both 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-08 Thread John Clark
On Wed, Mar 7, 2012 at 1:11 PM, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

 The 1-view from its own perspective can NEVER be plural.


Why?

   After duplication there are two people,


One person.


  each of whom must possess a singular perspective.


Yes, both brains have a single identical perspective.


  Both of these persons would recall being unsure in Helsinki where he
 would end up


Yes, both would recall identical things.

 Do you dissent from this?.


Only the part about there are two people, there are two bodies but only
one conscious person in that symmetrical room because if you swap their
positions subjectively there is no difference and objectively there is no
difference so it's not much of a jump to conclude there is no difference
between them.

 John K Clark

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-08 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/3/8 John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com

 On Wed, Mar 7, 2012 at 1:11 PM, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

  The 1-view from its own perspective can NEVER be plural.


 Why?

After duplication there are two people,


 One person.


  each of whom must possess a singular perspective.


 Yes, both brains have a single identical perspective.


  Both of these persons would recall being unsure in Helsinki where he
 would end up


 Yes, both would recall identical things.

  Do you dissent from this?.


 Only the part about there are two people, there are two bodies but only
 one conscious person


??

From their own POV, they're not one person, each has a singular experience,
even if identical, they do not feel both bodies.



 in that symmetrical room because if you swap their positions subjectively
 there is no difference and objectively there is no difference so it's not
 much of a jump to conclude there is no difference between them.

  John K Clark





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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-08 Thread Bruno Marchal

On 07 Mar 2012, at 18:40, John Clark wrote:


On Tue, Mar 6, 2012  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 In particular, how will you explain to the Bruno in the other  
city? You told him that he will find himself in M with 100% chance.  
He will tell you that you were wrong.


I was not wrong. When discussing the nature of identity care must be  
taken when using personal pronouns or confusion will run riot; I did  
not tell him that he will find himself in Moscow with a 100%  
chance, I said there is a 100% chance Bruno Marchal will be in  
Moscow and events proved I was 100% correct.


The experiment proves nothing about the 1-views. It proves (confirmed,  
actually) only the presence of Bruno Marchal's body.



The fact that Bruno Marchal is in Washington and knows nothing about  
Moscow is irrelevant and makes no difference to Bruno in Moscow  
whatsoever. Why do I say this? Because YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED.


You persist in ignoring the difference between the 1-view from the 1- 
view pov, which is what I usually mean by 1-views, and the 1-views  
that an outsider can attribute to other people.





 Which means that the body has been duplicated, and the 1-view has  
been duplicated in the 3-view perspective. But the 1-view from the 1- 
view perspective has not been duplicated.


Then when I said you have been duplicated there is something very  
important about you, the most important part in fact, that is  
missing because for unknown reasons it has not been duplicated.


Indeed.



What can it be, what is lacking in the copy that the original has?  
let's think, it can't be information because that can certainly be  
duplicated and it can't be matter because atoms are generic and we  
constantly replace our atoms with new ones anyway; so I think we  
both know the only remaining thing it can be, but I'm not yet ready  
to believe in the soul, abandon logic, and embrace irrationality.


Why? What is lacking is simply the first person personal subjective  
perspective. But I am OK to call that a soul. Good idea. It fits with  
the arithmetical lexicon I gave for arithmetical interpretation of  
Plotinus. The soul's logic is given by Bp  p and obeys a logic of  
knowledge (S4).
You confirm my feeling that you are confusing science (G) and  
knowledge (S4Grz).





I think there is a thought experiment that can resolve this issue:  
You are a copy of Bruno Marchal made as precisely as Heisenberg's  
law allows and you are now facing the original Bruno Marchal in a  
symmetrical room, thus the two of you are receiving identical  
sensory input and thus act identically. I now use a Star Trek brand  
transporter to instantly exchange your position with the original,  
or if you prefer I leave your bodies alone and just exchange the two  
brains. There is no way subjectively you or the original Bruno  
Marchal would notice that anything had happened, and objective  
outside observers would not notice anything had happened either.  
There would not even be a way to tell if the machine was actually  
working, I could even be lying about having a transporter. Who knows  
who cares?


OK. And?




Of course if there were a unsymmetrical change in the environment or  
there was a random quantum fluctuation that made the people  
different then things would evolve, well, differently, but at the  
instant of duplication they would still be identical. So if  
subjectively it makes no difference and objectively it makes no  
difference and even the very universe itself isn't sure if a switch  
had actually been made or not then I make the very reasonable  
assumption that it just makes no difference, and although there are  
two bodies and two brains in that symmetrical room there is only one  
intelligence and only one consciousness and only one point of view.


OK. And?

That would be like aa duplication W W, or M M, not W, M.

Do you agree with this principle: if today I can be sure that tomorrow  
I will be uncertain about the outcome of some experience, then I am  
today uncertain about the outcome of that future experience.


Let consider again the guy in Helsinki. He will be read and  
annihilate. the information will be sent in W and M, but here, I make  
precise that they will be reconstituted in exactly similar  
environment, so as to match your test. So in the boxes, they behave  
identically. They know that they have been reconstituted, because this  
is information is given by the style of the reconstitution boxes. Of  
course they don't know yet if it is in W and M. They can muse that  
they are at the two places at once, and there is certainly only one  
consciousness,. But they know they will differentiate when opening  
the door and getting outside the boxes. They don't know what will be  
the outcome of the experience opening the door. The guy in Helsinky  
knew this in advance, and can apply the principle above to say that he  
is uncertain today, before the split, what he will see when 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-08 Thread meekerdb

On 3/8/2012 10:37 AM, John Clark wrote:
On Wed, Mar 7, 2012 at 1:11 PM, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com 
mailto:da...@davidnyman.com wrote:


 The 1-view from its own perspective can NEVER be plural.


Why?

 After duplication there are two people, 



One person.

 each of whom must possess a singular perspective. 



Yes, both brains have a single identical perspective.

 Both of these persons would recall being unsure in Helsinki where he 
would end up


Yes, both would recall identical things.

 Do you dissent from this?.


Only the part about there are two people, there are two bodies but only one conscious 
person in that symmetrical room because if you swap their positions subjectively there 
is no difference and objectively there is no difference so it's not much of a jump to 
conclude there is no difference between them.


But then there's only one room and one body, per Leibniz's identity of 
indiscernibles.

This is similar to Feynman's idea of why all electrons are identical: there is only one 
electron which appears multiple because it zig zags back and forth in time as well as 
space.  Unfortunately we don't know what statistics consciousness obeys.


Brent



 John K Clark



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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-08 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Mar 8, 1:24 pm, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Wed, Mar 7, 2012  Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

  Can you transplant a particular flame from one candle to another?

 Can a particular flame exist from one nanosecond to the next?

I think that it can 'insist'. The continuity is figurative but real,
both through time and literally across space as 'energy'. The flame is
not an object but rather a relatively (to us) objective facet of an
intersubjective process which is experienced locally by the molecules
of wick, wax, and air surrounding them, the retinal cells of the eye
and brain of the observer, etc.


  Can you cut a spark down the middle lengthwise and put half here and half
  there?

 Certainly, a spark is made of matter, plasma to be specific, so put half
 the plasma here and the other half there.

The spark is a momentary fragmentation of matter sublimating across
space. You can't put half of 'it' somewhere because it is mostly
motion. It's like cutting a curveball in half and expecting to get a
perfect half of the curve.


    I think there is a thought experiment that can resolve this issue: You
  are a copy of Bruno Marchal made as precisely as Heisenberg's law allows
  and you are now facing the original Bruno Marchal in a symmetrical room,
  thus the two of you are receiving identical sensory input

   That's an assumption. A compass duplicated in this way would not be

  receiving identical sensory input.

 That could only happen if the magnetic field in that room favored one
 direction over another, and in my thought experiment I'm talking about a
 room with a infinite number of symmetries, like a sphere.

By isolating it that way though, you are excluding the possibility of
consciousness being anchored to the temporal narrative of the cosmos
rather than a phenomenon of objects in space. To duplicate even a
compass this way requires now that the entire universe contain only
symmetrical objects (otherwise won't the compass will point to the
asymmetry?). Of course magnetism is only an example. There may be many
ways to access factual external orientation. A GPS. A radiotelescope,
etc. Consciousness may have sense built into it along those lines.


   Someone with an exact copy of my brain might not be able to read English
  because they haven't had any history reading it. The brain may not encode
  in English or Chinese but in neurotransmitters which don't know the
  difference.

 The only difference between a native English speaker and a native Chinese
 speaker is the position and momentum of the atoms in their brain; as a
 matter of fact that's also the only difference between you and me.

That's an assumption. Since we don't see English or Chinese characters
arranged within the tissues of the brain being shuttled around from
region to region, and we see no homunculus or translator running i/o
between the optical form and the perceived meaning, we really have no
idea that the arrangement of the atoms is the cause. I think it's much
more likely is that it is the instantaneous and meaningless shadow of
a long-term meaningful experience. The poker game is not inside the
cards or their arrangement.


  My thought experiments start with if something is real, then it cannot
  ever be truly identical to anything else in the cosmos

 Then your thought experiment starts out as Bullshit right out of the box

Ah, a scientific opinion if ever I heard one.

 because science tells us there is no difference between one electron and
 another, there are no scratches on electrons to tell one from another.

Just because we can't tell one electron from another doesn't mean that
there is no difference. You are applying macro-scaled presumptions
about matter onto the microcosm. Electrons don't have scratches
because they don't have surfaces. They are more primitive than that.
Electrons cause objects to have scratches, they don't scratch
themselves.

We can tell the difference between photons in the reflection on the
surface of a glass and photons passing through a glass. How do you
think that works exactly?

 And
 this is not just vague philosophy, the identical nature of things when they
 get very small is behind the idea of exchange forces one of the pillars
 of modern physics, and from that you can deduce that there must be two
 classes of particles, bosons like photons and fermions like electrons, and
 from there you can deduce The Pauli Exclusion Principle, and that is the
 basis of the periodic table of elements, and that is the basis of
 chemistry, and that is the basis of life. From just the fact that electrons
 are identical and a little high school algebra you can derive The Pauli
 Exclusion Principle and that principle is not only responsible for life it
 is the very reason matter is solid, it is the only reason your feet don't
 sink into the ground and you fall to the center of the earth. So don't tell
 me nothing can be identical!

All of that can still be just as true 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-08 Thread David Nyman
On 8 March 2012 18:37, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

  each of whom must possess a singular perspective.


 Yes, both brains have a single identical perspective.

I'm sorry, but your recent comments strongly suggest you have not
fully grasped the premise of the experiment.  After duplication and
reconstitution in W and M the two copies cannot possibly have
identical perspectives.  They are not in a symmetrical room - they
are reconstituted in two different environments and consequently their
personal histories will immediately begin to diverge.  As to their
still being one person, if you stuck a pin in the one in W, surely
you wouldn't expect the one in M to flinch?

You seem to be pursuing a separate argument about the definition of
person, which is not the point at issue.  Sure, if we could
routinely duplicate bodies, we would need a more sophisticated
book-keeping method to keep track of them.  But the copies in question
could be in no doubt as to their possession of separate and
mutually-insulated perspectives after duplication, even if they might
be apt argue fruitlessly about which was the true heir.

David

 On Wed, Mar 7, 2012 at 1:11 PM, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

  The 1-view from its own perspective can NEVER be plural.


 Why?

    After duplication there are two people,


 One person.


  each of whom must possess a singular perspective.


 Yes, both brains have a single identical perspective.


  Both of these persons would recall being unsure in Helsinki where he
  would end up


 Yes, both would recall identical things.

  Do you dissent from this?.


 Only the part about there are two people, there are two bodies but only
 one conscious person in that symmetrical room because if you swap their
 positions subjectively there is no difference and objectively there is no
 difference so it's not much of a jump to conclude there is no difference
 between them.

  John K Clark





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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-08 Thread Stephen P. King

On 3/8/2012 4:24 PM, meekerdb wrote:

On 3/8/2012 10:37 AM, John Clark wrote:
On Wed, Mar 7, 2012 at 1:11 PM, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com 
mailto:da...@davidnyman.com wrote:


 The 1-view from its own perspective can NEVER be plural.


Why?

 After duplication there are two people, 



One person.

 each of whom must possess a singular perspective. 



Yes, both brains have a single identical perspective.

 Both of these persons would recall being unsure in Helsinki
where he would end up


Yes, both would recall identical things.

 Do you dissent from this?.


Only the part about there are two people, there are two bodies but 
only one conscious person in that symmetrical room because if you 
swap their positions subjectively there is no difference and 
objectively there is no difference so it's not much of a jump to 
conclude there is no difference between them.


But then there's only one room and one body, per Leibniz's identity of 
indiscernibles.


This is similar to Feynman's idea of why all electrons are identical: 
there is only one electron which appears multiple because it zig zags 
back and forth in time as well as space.  Unfortunately we don't know 
what statistics consciousness obeys.

Hi Brent,

Is there any reason why it would be any different? Just consider 
that the electron is conscious and has a 1p... The same measures should 
result. Why is consciousness so mysterious?



Onward!

Stephen

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-07 Thread David Nyman
On 7 March 2012 17:40, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

  You persistently confuse the 1-view from its own perspective (on which
  the probability/uncertainty bears), and the 1-view than an outsider can
  attribute to each reconstituted person.


 And you persistently ignore that YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED and thus the
 1-view from its own perspective is no longer singular but has become
 plural.

The 1-view from its own perspective can NEVER be plural.  After
duplication there are two people, each of whom must possess a singular
perspective.  Both of these persons would recall being unsure in
Helsinki where he would end up after duplication in Washington and
Moscow.  Do you dissent from this?.

David


 On Tue, Mar 6, 2012  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  In particular, how will you explain to the Bruno in the other city? You
  told him that he will find himself in M with 100% chance. He will tell you
  that you were wrong.


 I was not wrong. When discussing the nature of identity care must be taken
 when using personal pronouns or confusion will run riot; I did not tell
 him that he will find himself in Moscow with a 100% chance, I said
 there is a 100% chance Bruno Marchal will be in Moscow and events proved I
 was 100% correct. The fact that Bruno Marchal is in Washington and knows
 nothing about Moscow is irrelevant and makes no difference to Bruno in
 Moscow whatsoever. Why do I say this? Because YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED.


  Which means that the body has been duplicated, and the 1-view has been
  duplicated in the 3-view perspective. But the 1-view from the 1-view
  perspective has not been duplicated.


 Then when I said you have been duplicated there is something very
 important about you, the most important part in fact, that is missing
 because for unknown reasons it has not been duplicated. What can it be, what
 is lacking in the copy that the original has? let's think, it can't be
 information because that can certainly be duplicated and it can't be matter
 because atoms are generic and we constantly replace our atoms with new ones
 anyway; so I think we both know the only remaining thing it can be, but I'm
 not yet ready to believe in the soul, abandon logic, and embrace
 irrationality.

 I think there is a thought experiment that can resolve this issue: You are a
 copy of Bruno Marchal made as precisely as Heisenberg's law allows and you
 are now facing the original Bruno Marchal in a symmetrical room, thus the
 two of you are receiving identical sensory input and thus act identically. I
 now use a Star Trek brand transporter to instantly exchange your position
 with the original, or if you prefer I leave your bodies alone and just
 exchange the two brains. There is no way subjectively you or the original
 Bruno Marchal would notice that anything had happened, and objective outside
 observers would not notice anything had happened either. There would not
 even be a way to tell if the machine was actually working, I could even be
 lying about having a transporter. Who knows who cares?

 Of course if there were a unsymmetrical change in the environment or there
 was a random quantum fluctuation that made the people different then things
 would evolve, well, differently, but at the instant of duplication they
 would still be identical. So if subjectively it makes no difference and
 objectively it makes no difference and even the very universe itself isn't
 sure if a switch had actually been made or not then I make the very
 reasonable assumption that it just makes no difference, and although there
 are two bodies and two brains in that symmetrical room there is only one
 intelligence and only one consciousness and only one point of view.


  Like Everett said, the observer does not feel the split.


 It's against my better judgment but I know you like the word so yes,
 subjectively you do not feel a Everett style split, but God sees it; but in
 my example above if the 2 are really identical and if the exchange is really
 instantaneous then even God Himself doesn't know (or care) if things really
 got swapped or not.

  You persistently confuse the 1-view from its own perspective (on which
  the probability/uncertainty bears), and the 1-view than an outsider can
  attribute to each reconstituted person.


 And you persistently ignore that YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED and thus the
 1-view from its own perspective is no longer singular but has become
 plural.

  In Helsinki he does not know where he will feel to be after pushing the
 reading/annihilating button.


 So after pushing the button the Helsinki man knows his sensory information
 will no longer come from Helsinki, fine I have no trouble with that, and for
 the sake of argument let's say that after he pushes that button the Helsinki
 man does not know if his external stimuli will now come from Washington or
 Moscow (he does know of course, he always knows but never mind). And now
 what? There are after all lots of things 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-07 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Mar 7, 12:40 pm, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:


 Then when I said you have been duplicated there is something very
 important about you, the most important part in fact, that is missing
 because for unknown reasons it has not been duplicated. What can it be,
 what is lacking in the copy that the original has? let's think, it can't be
 information because that can certainly be duplicated and it can't be matter
 because atoms are generic and we constantly replace our atoms with new ones
 anyway; so I think we both know the only remaining thing it can be, but I'm
 not yet ready to believe in the soul, abandon logic, and embrace
 irrationality.

What is it that is deciding what to abandon or embrace? Why does it
have to be something other than what it is: private personal
experience. Meaning. Sense. Can you transplant a particular flame from
one candle to another? Can you cut a spark down the middle lengthwise
and put half here and half there?


 I think there is a thought experiment that can resolve this issue: You are
 a copy of Bruno Marchal made as precisely as Heisenberg's law allows and
 you are now facing the original Bruno Marchal in a symmetrical room, thus
 the two of you are receiving identical sensory input

That's an assumption. A compass duplicated in this way would not be
receiving identical sensory input. We don't consciously use magnetic
sense for navigation like other organisms do, but we can't assume that
our awareness is not influenced by subtle conditions that extend
beyond the immediate area of our body.

We don't know that it is possible to actually duplicate anything, only
that we can make things that seem like they are the same to us.
Someone with an exact copy of my brain might not be able to read
English because they haven't had any history reading it. The brain may
not encode in English or Chinese but in neurotransmitters which don't
know the difference. If we don't see it in a microscope, there is no
reason to assume that our copy made through microscopic analysis will
contain it. Experience may be real, and non-transferable.



 Of course if there were a unsymmetrical change in the environment or there
 was a random quantum fluctuation that made the people different then things
 would evolve, well, differently, but at the instant of duplication they
 would still be identical. So if subjectively it makes no difference and
 objectively it makes no difference and even the very universe itself isn't
 sure if a switch had actually been made or not then I make the very
 reasonable assumption that it just makes no difference, and although there
 are two bodies and two brains in that symmetrical room there is only one
 intelligence and only one consciousness and only one point of view.

  Like Everett said, the observer does not feel the split.

 It's against my better judgment but I know you like the word so yes,
 subjectively you do not feel a Everett style split, but God sees it; but in
 my example above if the 2 are really identical and if the exchange is
 really instantaneous then even God Himself doesn't know (or care) if things
 really got swapped or not.

  You persistently confuse the 1-view from its own perspective (on which
  the probability/uncertainty bears), and the 1-view than an outsider can
  attribute to each reconstituted person.

 And you persistently ignore that YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED and thus the
 1-view from its own perspective is no longer singular but has become
 plural.

By plural, do you mean telepathic unity between physically separate
bodies? Do I feel like I have four arms and four legs on two bodies in
two places?


 This is plainly false because BRUNO MARCHAL HAS BEEN DUPLICATED, Bruno
 Marchal's perspective has been duplicated his memory has been duplicated
 his personality has been duplicated his intelligence has been duplicated
 his consciousness has been duplicated, EVERYTHING about Bruno Marchal has
 been duplicated, and yet you continue to insist that I is singular when
 very clearly it is not. After the experiment Bruno Marchal will say Bruno
 Marchal feels like Bruno Marchal is in Washington and only Washington and
 after the experiment Bruno Marchal will say Bruno Marchal feels like Bruno
 Marchal is in Moscow and only Moscow, and Bruno Marchal is correct because
 Bruno Marchal has been duplicated.

Then Moscow Bruno can change his name and is no longer a duplicate. By
extension, since he was the one who changed his name, it could be said
that he never was a duplicate as he was destined for Moscow.


  In fact my body has been duplicated, and for an outsider my 1-view have

 been duplicated, but the Nagel-Everett subjective view on the 1-view are
 not. You confuse 3p discourses on 1-views with 1-p discourse on its 1-view.

 I believe it is you that is confused and that is not surprising considering
 that your implicit or explicit assumption at the start of all your thought
 experiments is everything about you is duplicated and 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Mar 2012, at 22:30, John Clark wrote:


On Mon, Mar 5, 2012  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 What is the probability the Helsinki man will receive signals  
from Moscow turning him into the Moscow man? 100%.


That's ambiguous.

There is nothing ambiguous about it! Granted this thought experiment  
is odd but everything is crystal clear. According to the thought  
experiment you have been teleported to Moscow which means you will  
now be receiving sights and sounds and smells and tastes and feeling  
textures from Moscow instead of Helsinki. I say the probability of  
that happening is 100%, how can I tell if my prediction is correct?  
If after the experiment I can find something that says he is Bruno  
Marchal and that he feels like he is in one and only one place and  
that one place is Moscow then my prediction has been confirmed as  
being correct.


So it is not ambiguous because you take for granted that we were  
talking on the 1p, from your outsider perspective.


So you are still talking about the 3-view on the 1-view. In  
particular, how will you explain to the Bruno in the other city?
You told him that he will find himself in M with 100% chance. He will  
tell you that you were wrong.




After the experiment I CAN find such a thing so my prediction was  
correct. The fact that there is also a Bruno Marchal in Washington  
is irrelevant, it does not reduce the feeling that Bruno Marchal has  
that he is in one and only one place and that one place is Moscow by  
even a infinitesimal amount.


Well, if you don't listen to the BM in W, then you are right, but why  
would you not listen to him?






 If you say 100%, it means that you are talking on the first person  
that you can attribute to different people.


Of course the first person can be attributed to different people  
because according to the thought experiment *YOU* have been  
duplicated, let me repeat that, YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED. Although  
perfectly logical that is certainly a unusual situation, I've never  
been duplicated before and you probably haven't either, so it  
shouldn't be surprising that the results of such a unusual situation  
are odd, not illogical not self contradictory just odd.


Assuming comp, we can say that we practice duplication, and even more  
complex self-transformation; since the time of the first amoeba. It is  
not unusual.

If QM is true, we are multiplied (or differentiated) all the times.






 we get a paradox if you say that it is 100% for both Moscow and  
Washington.


There is not the slightest thing paradoxical about it, in fact if I  
had said anything else then that WOULD have been paradoxical. Why?  
Because YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED, that means your first person  
perspective has been duplicated and will remain identical until  
differing environmental factors cause the two of YOU to diverge;   
and even then they would both be Bruno Marchal they just wouldn't be  
each other.


Which means that the body has been duplicated, and the 1-view has been  
duplicated in the 3-view perspective. But the 1-view from the 1-view  
perspective has not been duplicated. Like Everett said, the observer  
does not feel the split. You persistently confuse the 1-view from its  
own perspective (on which the probability/uncertainty bears), and the  
1-view than an outsider can attribute to each reconstituted person.






 What is the probability the Helsinki man will receive signals  
from neither Washington nor Moscow and thus leaving him as the  
Helsinki man? 100%.


 In the protocol considered the Helsinki guy is annihilated.

Fine, if that's the thought experiment then the probability the  
Helsinki man will receive signals from either Washington or Moscow  
is 100% so the probability he will remain the Helsinki man is 0%.  
Annihilate or don't, either way the results are deterministic.


From the 3-view perspective. Not from the 1-view of the participants.  
In Helsinki he does not know where he will feel to be after pushing  
the reading/annihilating button. And after the experience the one in W  
cannot know why he is the one in W, and the same for the guy in M.
This is even clearer with the iteration of that experience, where most  
person write long strings of W and M in their diary, like  
WWWMWMMWWMMWMWMMWWMWW, and are unable to find any algorithm  
justifying that past which looks random to them.







 What is the probability the Helsinki man will feel like the  
Moscow man? 0% because if he felt like the Moscow man he wouldn't be  
the Helsinki man anymore.


 In that case, the probability to survive, in the usual clinical  
sense, a teleportation experience is 0


But the usual clinical sense is totally useless in this case  
because this case is about as far from usual as you can get and  
still remain logical. Why do I say that? Because YOU HAVE BEEN  
DUPLICATED.



Nothing unusual, with comp we do that all the time since the first  
amoeba (and before, to be 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Mar 2012, at 00:14, acw wrote:

John Clark, it seems to me that you're intentionally ignoring the 1p  
(first person) point of view (qualia or subjective experience) and  
one's expectations from that point of view.


I think that John Clark does not miss the 1p and 3p distinction, but  
he misses the expectations from that point of view *about* that point  
of view.





To follow UDA and get COMP's conclusions you need these assumptions:  
Mind (1p), Mechanism (surviving a digital substitution), Church  
Turing Thesis(CTT) and an interpretation of arithmetic to give CTT  
sense (such as the existence of the standard model of arithmetic).


If you take a eliminative materialist position, that is, saying the  
mind doesn't exist and thus also no subjective experience, you  
cannot even begin to follow the UDA - you've already assumed that  
the mind doesn't exist and only the physical universe does. Of  
course that's a bit problematic because you've only learned of this  
physical universe through your own subjective experiences.


But John is more subtle than most materialist eliminativist. He is  
willing to ascribe consciousness, even to the two reconstituted  
persons after a duplication, but he does not take their account into  
account.  He does not listen to the guy with the sequence  
WWWMWWWMMMW who does acknowledge that this particular string was  
not precisely expected, and that he has no clue of what comes next for  
its next feeling in the duplication experience.






If you take 1p seriously, UDA asks you to predict what your  
*experiences* will be in a variety of situations.


By neglecting each particular account, and identifying himself  
(intellectually) with all the copies, he will claim that he can easily  
makes the prediction: he will experience all the situations. This  
might be true from some God pov, or from a complete outsider view, but  
of course that is not what we were asking.




You can look at the 3p bodies/brains and assign/correlate certain  
1p's to them, but one can consider duplication scenarios which don't  
disturb continuity at all - if the mind survived a digital  
substitution it is already a program that can be duplicated/merged/ 
instantiated/... in a variety of ways - that program could even  
change substrates or be computed in all kinds of fragmented and  
strange ways and still maintain internal continuity.
This may seem strange to you, so you might try to resolve it by only  
looking at the bodies instead of asking what *is experienced*, but  
that's a mistake and you will miss the point of the UDA that way  
because you're making the negation of the mind assumption or merely  
ignoring it.


He ignores only the 1-views on the 1-views, but does not ignore the  
existence of the 1-views. This makes possible for him to accept the  
existence of the mind, but also to trivialize its possible role, and  
to block at the start the reasoning.





Also in QM MWI, you have the same splitting/duplication all the time  
as you do with COMP, and the splitting time is likely much shorter  
(at plank time or less), while subjective experience is at much  
slower scales relative to that (likely a variable rate of 1-120Hz  
due to neuron spiking times, although hard to confirm this  
practically).


So I repeat again: UDA is about what is experienced from the first  
person of a conscious SIM(Substrate Independent Mind)/AGI and its  
implications for the ontology and physics and mostly about what  
would such a mind experience. Looking only at the body of such a SIM  
is completely missing the point or just assuming physicalism with  
hidden assumption that subjective experience does not exist and is a  
delusion.


He probably want to save physicalism, but he is not eliminativist. He  
just ignore the 1-view of the 1-view, he attribute mind to body, but  
fails to see that the mind, from the point of view of the mind,  does  
not feel nor live any split in the duplication experience, and feel  
always to be a singular person, living what is an undoubtable personal  
random experience.


I'm afraid I will have to explain the betting approach, or the  
optimization of the life of the reconstituted person. This is enough  
to get the reversal physics/arithmetic, but is more tedious and long  
to show.


Let me try to explain this first to someone who seem to be rather  
lucid on all this (you).


Let us take again the multiplication-movie experience. But instead  
of multiplying only John Clark, into the
2^((16180 x 1) x (60 x 90) x 24, we have to multiply the couple  
[John Clark + a banker], and John, at the start, when still unique, is  
asked to choose the between the following bet:


I bet a billion$ that I will see the movie Monty Python Flying  
circus 


or

I bet a billion$ that I will see white noise.

The bet is done with the banker, which is multiplied together with  
John. (it is the comp first person plural case).


In this case it is 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-06 Thread David Nyman
On 5 March 2012 23:50, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 It's unclear as to whom you and your refers to.

Let me suggest a heuristic.  Assume that any given instance of
experience (by which I mean just whatever is necessary to permit some
sort of determination to be made) is selected at random from the class
of all such moments. All personal-indexical references can then be
taken as referring to the conjunction of this instance and whatever
personal history is implied by its content and structure.

This heuristic serves to justify the expectation, from the
perspective of any such instance, of its substitution by other such
instances.  Insofar as such substitutions imply continuations of the
present moment, they can be considered as constituting part of the
future of a particular personal history.  If this heuristic is
applied consistently to the various thought experiments, (with the
usual allowance for measure) it should be obvious that diary
entries recoverable within any given experiential instance will
typically record precisely the sort of prior uncertainty or
indeterminacy, with respect to the present instance, that Bruno is
talking about.

David

 On 3/5/2012 3:23 PM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 5 March 2012 21:30, John Clarkjohnkcl...@gmail.com  wrote:

 Yes.  I John K Clark just saw a 90 minutes documentary on the history of
 asphalt, and as that is certainly one of the large but finite number of
 90
 minute movies I can see on that screen it is entirely consistent with my
 prediction that John K Clark will see every 90 minute movie that screen
 can
 show.

 For some reason that really puzzles me, you are systematically failing
 to answer the question as posed.  It is equivalent to asking: if you
 knew that the entire stock of tickets in a lottery would be
 distributed among multiple 3-Johns, what is the probability that your
 future experience would be of poverty or wealth?  Of course, you know
 in advance that one copy will end up rich, but the 3-situation is not
 at issue.  The issue is only whether your next 1-experience will be of
 sudden wealth, or not.  It can only be one or the other, not both, and
 which it will be is indeterminate in the usual sense of any lottery.
 The point being demonstrated is that, regardless of the 3-situation,
 you can never sum 1-experiences - they are always mutually
 exclusive.  Isn't that clear?


 It's unclear as to whom you and your refers to.

 Brent


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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Mar 2012, at 17:12, David Nyman wrote:


On 5 March 2012 23:50, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


It's unclear as to whom you and your refers to.


Let me suggest a heuristic.  Assume that any given instance of
experience (by which I mean just whatever is necessary to permit some
sort of determination to be made) is selected at random from the class
of all such moments. All personal-indexical references can then be
taken as referring to the conjunction of this instance and whatever
personal history is implied by its content and structure.


OK.




This heuristic serves to justify the expectation, from the
perspective of any such instance, of its substitution by other such
instances.  Insofar as such substitutions imply continuations of the
present moment, they can be considered as constituting part of the
future of a particular personal history.



OK. And with comp such substitutions imply continuations when there  
is a universal number/machine u running the the continuation in the UD  
(or the sigma_1 complete part of arithmetic).


That's why comp predicts that if we look below our substitution level,  
the computations multiply effectively, because there are an infinity  
of such universal u.


QM-without collapse/Everett witnesses the first person plural, which  
is just the contagion of the duplications from observers to  
observers.


Bruno




If this heuristic is
applied consistently to the various thought experiments, (with the
usual allowance for measure) it should be obvious that diary
entries recoverable within any given experiential instance will
typically record precisely the sort of prior uncertainty or
indeterminacy, with respect to the present instance, that Bruno is
talking about.

David


On 3/5/2012 3:23 PM, David Nyman wrote:


On 5 March 2012 21:30, John Clarkjohnkcl...@gmail.com  wrote:

Yes.  I John K Clark just saw a 90 minutes documentary on the  
history of
asphalt, and as that is certainly one of the large but finite  
number of

90
minute movies I can see on that screen it is entirely consistent  
with my
prediction that John K Clark will see every 90 minute movie that  
screen

can
show.


For some reason that really puzzles me, you are systematically  
failing

to answer the question as posed.  It is equivalent to asking: if you
knew that the entire stock of tickets in a lottery would be
distributed among multiple 3-Johns, what is the probability that  
your
future experience would be of poverty or wealth?  Of course, you  
know
in advance that one copy will end up rich, but the 3-situation is  
not
at issue.  The issue is only whether your next 1-experience will  
be of
sudden wealth, or not.  It can only be one or the other, not both,  
and

which it will be is indeterminate in the usual sense of any lottery.
The point being demonstrated is that, regardless of the 3-situation,
you can never sum 1-experiences - they are always mutually
exclusive.  Isn't that clear?



It's unclear as to whom you and your refers to.

Brent


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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-06 Thread meekerdb

On 3/6/2012 8:12 AM, David Nyman wrote:

On 5 March 2012 23:50, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:


It's unclear as to whom you and your refers to.

Let me suggest a heuristic.  Assume that any given instance of
experience (by which I mean just whatever is necessary to permit some
sort of determination to be made) is selected at random from the class
of all such moments. All personal-indexical references can then be
taken as referring to the conjunction of this instance and whatever
personal history is implied by its content and structure.

This heuristic serves to justify the expectation, from the
perspective of any such instance, of its substitution by other such
instances.  Insofar as such substitutions imply continuations of the
present moment, they can be considered as constituting part of the
future of a particular personal history.  If this heuristic is
applied consistently to the various thought experiments, (with the
usual allowance for measure) it should be obvious that diary
entries recoverable within any given experiential instance will
typically record precisely the sort of prior uncertainty or
indeterminacy, with respect to the present instance, that Bruno is
talking about.

David


I don't think I have a problem with the indeterminacy.  Consider in your scenario that we 
duplicated a video camera instead of a person.  When look at what the cameras in M and W 
have recorded in one we see pictures of Helsinki followed by pictures of Moscow and from 
the other we see pictures of Helsinki followed by pictures of Washington.  The ambiguity 
comes when, before the duplication, we ask, What will this camera record?.  This is 
ambiguous just as he is ambiguous.


Brent

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-06 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/3/6 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

 On 3/6/2012 8:12 AM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 5 March 2012 23:50, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:

  It's unclear as to whom you and your refers to.

 Let me suggest a heuristic.  Assume that any given instance of
 experience (by which I mean just whatever is necessary to permit some
 sort of determination to be made) is selected at random from the class
 of all such moments. All personal-indexical references can then be
 taken as referring to the conjunction of this instance and whatever
 personal history is implied by its content and structure.

 This heuristic serves to justify the expectation, from the
 perspective of any such instance, of its substitution by other such
 instances.  Insofar as such substitutions imply continuations of the
 present moment, they can be considered as constituting part of the
 future of a particular personal history.  If this heuristic is
 applied consistently to the various thought experiments, (with the
 usual allowance for measure) it should be obvious that diary
 entries recoverable within any given experiential instance will
 typically record precisely the sort of prior uncertainty or
 indeterminacy, with respect to the present instance, that Bruno is
 talking about.

 David


 I don't think I have a problem with the indeterminacy.  Consider in your
 scenario that we duplicated a video camera instead of a person.  When look
 at what the cameras in M and W have recorded in one we see pictures of
 Helsinki followed by pictures of Moscow and from the other we see pictures
 of Helsinki followed by pictures of Washington.  The ambiguity comes when,
 before the duplication, we ask, What will this camera record?.  This is
 ambiguous just as he is ambiguous.


The question is indexical... it it not he but I... in the thought
experiment *you* are the one duplicated, and you ask yourself your own
expectation for your next moment. Maybe what is you is not well defined
for something outside of you (us ;) ) but I expect you know what you are,
and feel... and hence you is well defined for yourself from your POV.

Quentin



 Brent

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-06 Thread meekerdb

On 3/6/2012 9:27 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/3/6 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 3/6/2012 8:12 AM, David Nyman wrote:

On 5 March 2012 23:50, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net  wrote:

It's unclear as to whom you and your refers to.

Let me suggest a heuristic.  Assume that any given instance of
experience (by which I mean just whatever is necessary to permit some
sort of determination to be made) is selected at random from the class
of all such moments. All personal-indexical references can then be
taken as referring to the conjunction of this instance and whatever
personal history is implied by its content and structure.

This heuristic serves to justify the expectation, from the
perspective of any such instance, of its substitution by other such
instances.  Insofar as such substitutions imply continuations of the
present moment, they can be considered as constituting part of the
future of a particular personal history.  If this heuristic is
applied consistently to the various thought experiments, (with the
usual allowance for measure) it should be obvious that diary
entries recoverable within any given experiential instance will
typically record precisely the sort of prior uncertainty or
indeterminacy, with respect to the present instance, that Bruno is
talking about.

David


I don't think I have a problem with the indeterminacy.  Consider in your 
scenario
that we duplicated a video camera instead of a person.  When look at what 
the
cameras in M and W have recorded in one we see pictures of Helsinki 
followed by
pictures of Moscow and from the other we see pictures of Helsinki followed 
by
pictures of Washington.  The ambiguity comes when, before the duplication, 
we ask,
What will this camera record?.  This is ambiguous just as he is 
ambiguous.


The question is indexical... it it not he but I... in the thought experiment *you* 
are the one duplicated, and you ask yourself your own expectation for your next moment. 
Maybe what is you is not well defined for something outside of you (us ;) ) but I 
expect you know what you are, and feel...


At any given moment.  But when you ask about my future, and under the hypothesis I may be 
duplicated, then that future I is not longer indicial, it is ambiguous...which is the 
source of the indeterminacy.


Brent


and hence you is well defined for yourself from your POV.

Quentin



Brent

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-06 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/3/6 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

  On 3/6/2012 9:27 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/3/6 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

 On 3/6/2012 8:12 AM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 5 March 2012 23:50, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:

  It's unclear as to whom you and your refers to.

 Let me suggest a heuristic.  Assume that any given instance of
 experience (by which I mean just whatever is necessary to permit some
 sort of determination to be made) is selected at random from the class
 of all such moments. All personal-indexical references can then be
 taken as referring to the conjunction of this instance and whatever
 personal history is implied by its content and structure.

 This heuristic serves to justify the expectation, from the
 perspective of any such instance, of its substitution by other such
 instances.  Insofar as such substitutions imply continuations of the
 present moment, they can be considered as constituting part of the
 future of a particular personal history.  If this heuristic is
 applied consistently to the various thought experiments, (with the
 usual allowance for measure) it should be obvious that diary
 entries recoverable within any given experiential instance will
 typically record precisely the sort of prior uncertainty or
 indeterminacy, with respect to the present instance, that Bruno is
 talking about.

 David


  I don't think I have a problem with the indeterminacy.  Consider in your
 scenario that we duplicated a video camera instead of a person.  When look
 at what the cameras in M and W have recorded in one we see pictures of
 Helsinki followed by pictures of Moscow and from the other we see pictures
 of Helsinki followed by pictures of Washington.  The ambiguity comes when,
 before the duplication, we ask, What will this camera record?.  This is
 ambiguous just as he is ambiguous.


 The question is indexical... it it not he but I... in the thought
 experiment *you* are the one duplicated, and you ask yourself your own
 expectation for your next moment. Maybe what is you is not well defined
 for something outside of you (us ;) ) but I expect you know what you are,
 and feel...


 At any given moment.  But when you ask about my future, and under the
 hypothesis I may be duplicated, then that future I is not longer
 indicial, it is ambiguous...which is the source of the indeterminacy.


It is the source of inderteminacy... but from your POV it is not
ambiguous... after the duplication, each copy will not feel any ambiguity
about the past... and before the experience, you won't feel any ambiguity
about yourself, only an inability to predict your next expectation... which
is the 1p-indeterminacy.

Quentin


 Brent

  and hence you is well defined for yourself from your POV.

 Quentin



 Brent

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-05 Thread John Clark
On Mon, Mar 5, 2012  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 What is the probability the Helsinki man will receive signals from
 Moscow turning him into the Moscow man? 100%.


 That's ambiguous.


There is nothing ambiguous about it! Granted this thought experiment is odd
but everything is crystal clear. According to the thought experiment you
have been teleported to Moscow which means you will now be receiving sights
and sounds and smells and tastes and feeling textures from Moscow instead
of Helsinki. I say the probability of that happening is 100%, how can I
tell if my prediction is correct? If after the experiment I can find
something that says he is Bruno Marchal and that he feels like he is in one
and only one place and that one place is Moscow then my prediction has been
confirmed as being correct. After the experiment I CAN find such a thing so
my prediction was correct. The fact that there is also a Bruno Marchal in
Washington is irrelevant, it does not reduce the feeling that Bruno Marchal
has that he is in one and only one place and that one place is Moscow by
even a infinitesimal amount.

 If you say 100%, it means that you are talking on the first person that
 you can attribute to different people.


Of course the first person can be attributed to different people because
according to the thought experiment *YOU* have been duplicated, let me
repeat that, YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED. Although perfectly logical that is
certainly a unusual situation, I've never been duplicated before and you
probably haven't either, so it shouldn't be surprising that the results of
such a unusual situation are odd, not illogical not self contradictory just
odd.

 we get a paradox if you say that it is 100% for both Moscow and
 Washington.


There is not the slightest thing paradoxical about it, in fact if I had
said anything else then that WOULD have been paradoxical. Why? Because YOU
HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED, that means your first person perspective has been
duplicated and will remain identical until differing environmental factors
cause the two of YOU to diverge;  and even then they would both be Bruno
Marchal they just wouldn't be each other.

 What is the probability the Helsinki man will receive signals from
 neither Washington nor Moscow and thus leaving him as the Helsinki man?
 100%.


  In the protocol considered the Helsinki guy is annihilated.


Fine, if that's the thought experiment then the probability the Helsinki
man will receive signals from either Washington or Moscow is 100% so the
probability he will remain the Helsinki man is 0%. Annihilate or don't,
either way the results are deterministic.

 What is the probability the Helsinki man will feel like the Moscow man?
 0% because if he felt like the Moscow man he wouldn't be the Helsinki man
 anymore.


  In that case, the probability to survive, in the usual clinical sense, a
 teleportation experience is 0


But the usual clinical sense is totally useless in this case because this
case is about as far from usual as you can get and still remain logical.
Why do I say that? Because YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED.

 What is the probability the Moscow man will feel like the Washington
 man? 0% because if he felt like the Washington man he wouldn't be the
 Moscow man anymore.


  I guess the last Moscow should be replaced by Helsinki.


You can if you want to, either way its still true.

  What is the probability that a third party in all this will see a
 person in Helsinki and Washington and Moscow with all 3 having a exactly
 equal right to call themselves John K Clark? 100%.


  The guy in Helsinki is annihilated


Then 2 have a exactly equal right to call themselves John K Clark, and
although annihilated the guy in Helsinki didn't die because dying means
having a last thought and he didn't have one, he continued to feel
sensations only now they originated in Moscow and Washington not
Helsinki.

 Helsinki where the third party will see only ashes after the experiment


I don't care if a third party thinks I'm dead as long as I think I'm not.

 You have avoided the question, asked in Helsinki to you: where can you
 expect to be from a personal, first person point of view, after the
 duplication is done?.


I have not avoided the question at all, the answer is that the one and only
one place you will feel to be after the experiment is Moscow and Washington
and there is nothing paradoxical about that. I think your difficulty is
that when you blithely say you have been duplicated you don't really
understand that it means YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED.

 You cannot answer in W and in M, because you will not write, after the
 experience, in your diary I feel to be W and I feel to be in M


In Washington you will write in your diary I feel like I am in Washington
and only in Washington and in Moscow you will write in your diary I feel
like I am in Moscow and only in Moscow because YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED.

 The question is just hard, if not impossible, for the bat, 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-05 Thread acw
John Clark, it seems to me that you're intentionally ignoring the 1p 
(first person) point of view (qualia or subjective experience) and one's 
expectations from that point of view.


To follow UDA and get COMP's conclusions you need these assumptions: 
Mind (1p), Mechanism (surviving a digital substitution), Church Turing 
Thesis(CTT) and an interpretation of arithmetic to give CTT sense (such 
as the existence of the standard model of arithmetic).


If you take a eliminative materialist position, that is, saying the mind 
doesn't exist and thus also no subjective experience, you cannot even 
begin to follow the UDA - you've already assumed that the mind doesn't 
exist and only the physical universe does. Of course that's a bit 
problematic because you've only learned of this physical universe 
through your own subjective experiences.


If you take 1p seriously, UDA asks you to predict what your 
*experiences* will be in a variety of situations. You can look at the 3p 
bodies/brains and assign/correlate certain 1p's to them, but one can 
consider duplication scenarios which don't disturb continuity at all - 
if the mind survived a digital substitution it is already a program that 
can be duplicated/merged/instantiated/... in a variety of ways - that 
program could even change substrates or be computed in all kinds of 
fragmented and strange ways and still maintain internal continuity.
This may seem strange to you, so you might try to resolve it by only 
looking at the bodies instead of asking what *is experienced*, but 
that's a mistake and you will miss the point of the UDA that way because 
you're making the negation of the mind assumption or merely ignoring it.


Also in QM MWI, you have the same splitting/duplication all the time as 
you do with COMP, and the splitting time is likely much shorter (at 
plank time or less), while subjective experience is at much slower 
scales relative to that (likely a variable rate of 1-120Hz due to neuron 
spiking times, although hard to confirm this practically).


So I repeat again: UDA is about what is experienced from the first 
person of a conscious SIM(Substrate Independent Mind)/AGI and its 
implications for the ontology and physics and mostly about what would 
such a mind experience. Looking only at the body of such a SIM is 
completely missing the point or just assuming physicalism with hidden 
assumption that subjective experience does not exist and is a delusion.


On 3/5/2012 21:30, John Clark wrote:

On Mon, Mar 5, 2012  Bruno Marchalmarc...@ulb.ac.be  wrote:


What is the probability the Helsinki man will receive signals from
Moscow turning him into the Moscow man? 100%.




That's ambiguous.




There is nothing ambiguous about it! Granted this thought experiment is odd
but everything is crystal clear. According to the thought experiment you
have been teleported to Moscow which means you will now be receiving sights
and sounds and smells and tastes and feeling textures from Moscow instead
of Helsinki. I say the probability of that happening is 100%, how can I
tell if my prediction is correct? If after the experiment I can find
something that says he is Bruno Marchal and that he feels like he is in one
and only one place and that one place is Moscow then my prediction has been
confirmed as being correct. After the experiment I CAN find such a thing so
my prediction was correct. The fact that there is also a Bruno Marchal in
Washington is irrelevant, it does not reduce the feeling that Bruno Marchal
has that he is in one and only one place and that one place is Moscow by
even a infinitesimal amount.


If you say 100%, it means that you are talking on the first person that
you can attribute to different people.



Of course the first person can be attributed to different people because
according to the thought experiment *YOU* have been duplicated, let me
repeat that, YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED. Although perfectly logical that is
certainly a unusual situation, I've never been duplicated before and you
probably haven't either, so it shouldn't be surprising that the results of
such a unusual situation are odd, not illogical not self contradictory just
odd.


we get a paradox if you say that it is 100% for both Moscow and
Washington.



There is not the slightest thing paradoxical about it, in fact if I had
said anything else then that WOULD have been paradoxical. Why? Because YOU
HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED, that means your first person perspective has been
duplicated and will remain identical until differing environmental factors
cause the two of YOU to diverge;  and even then they would both be Bruno
Marchal they just wouldn't be each other.


What is the probability the Helsinki man will receive signals from
neither Washington nor Moscow and thus leaving him as the Helsinki man?
100%.




In the protocol considered the Helsinki guy is annihilated.




Fine, if that's the thought experiment then the probability the Helsinki
man will receive signals from either 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-05 Thread David Nyman
On 5 March 2012 21:30, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 Yes.  I John K Clark just saw a 90 minutes documentary on the history of
 asphalt, and as that is certainly one of the large but finite number of 90
 minute movies I can see on that screen it is entirely consistent with my
 prediction that John K Clark will see every 90 minute movie that screen can
 show.

For some reason that really puzzles me, you are systematically failing
to answer the question as posed.  It is equivalent to asking: if you
knew that the entire stock of tickets in a lottery would be
distributed among multiple 3-Johns, what is the probability that your
future experience would be of poverty or wealth?  Of course, you know
in advance that one copy will end up rich, but the 3-situation is not
at issue.  The issue is only whether your next 1-experience will be of
sudden wealth, or not.  It can only be one or the other, not both, and
which it will be is indeterminate in the usual sense of any lottery.
The point being demonstrated is that, regardless of the 3-situation,
you can never sum 1-experiences - they are always mutually
exclusive.  Isn't that clear?

David

 On Mon, Mar 5, 2012  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  What is the probability the Helsinki man will receive signals from
  Moscow turning him into the Moscow man? 100%.


 That's ambiguous.


 There is nothing ambiguous about it! Granted this thought experiment is odd
 but everything is crystal clear. According to the thought experiment you
 have been teleported to Moscow which means you will now be receiving sights
 and sounds and smells and tastes and feeling textures from Moscow instead of
 Helsinki. I say the probability of that happening is 100%, how can I tell if
 my prediction is correct? If after the experiment I can find something that
 says he is Bruno Marchal and that he feels like he is in one and only one
 place and that one place is Moscow then my prediction has been confirmed as
 being correct. After the experiment I CAN find such a thing so my prediction
 was correct. The fact that there is also a Bruno Marchal in Washington is
 irrelevant, it does not reduce the feeling that Bruno Marchal has that he is
 in one and only one place and that one place is Moscow by even a
 infinitesimal amount.

  If you say 100%, it means that you are talking on the first person that
  you can attribute to different people.


 Of course the first person can be attributed to different people because
 according to the thought experiment *YOU* have been duplicated, let me
 repeat that, YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED. Although perfectly logical that is
 certainly a unusual situation, I've never been duplicated before and you
 probably haven't either, so it shouldn't be surprising that the results of
 such a unusual situation are odd, not illogical not self contradictory just
 odd.

  we get a paradox if you say that it is 100% for both Moscow and
  Washington.


 There is not the slightest thing paradoxical about it, in fact if I had said
 anything else then that WOULD have been paradoxical. Why? Because YOU HAVE
 BEEN DUPLICATED, that means your first person perspective has been
 duplicated and will remain identical until differing environmental factors
 cause the two of YOU to diverge;  and even then they would both be Bruno
 Marchal they just wouldn't be each other.


  What is the probability the Helsinki man will receive signals from
  neither Washington nor Moscow and thus leaving him as the Helsinki man?
  100%.


  In the protocol considered the Helsinki guy is annihilated.


 Fine, if that's the thought experiment then the probability the Helsinki man
 will receive signals from either Washington or Moscow is 100% so the
 probability he will remain the Helsinki man is 0%. Annihilate or don't,
 either way the results are deterministic.


  What is the probability the Helsinki man will feel like the Moscow
  man? 0% because if he felt like the Moscow man he wouldn't be the 
  Helsinki
  man anymore.


  In that case, the probability to survive, in the usual clinical sense, a
  teleportation experience is 0


 But the usual clinical sense is totally useless in this case because this
 case is about as far from usual as you can get and still remain logical.
 Why do I say that? Because YOU HAVE BEEN DUPLICATED.

  What is the probability the Moscow man will feel like the Washington
  man? 0% because if he felt like the Washington man he wouldn't be the 
  Moscow
  man anymore.


  I guess the last Moscow should be replaced by Helsinki.


 You can if you want to, either way its still true.


   What is the probability that a third party in all this will see a
  person in Helsinki and Washington and Moscow with all 3 having a exactly
  equal right to call themselves John K Clark? 100%.


  The guy in Helsinki is annihilated


 Then 2 have a exactly equal right to call themselves John K Clark, and
 although annihilated the guy in Helsinki didn't die because dying means
 

Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-05 Thread meekerdb

On 3/5/2012 3:23 PM, David Nyman wrote:

On 5 March 2012 21:30, John Clarkjohnkcl...@gmail.com  wrote:


Yes.  I John K Clark just saw a 90 minutes documentary on the history of
asphalt, and as that is certainly one of the large but finite number of 90
minute movies I can see on that screen it is entirely consistent with my
prediction that John K Clark will see every 90 minute movie that screen can
show.

For some reason that really puzzles me, you are systematically failing
to answer the question as posed.  It is equivalent to asking: if you
knew that the entire stock of tickets in a lottery would be
distributed among multiple 3-Johns, what is the probability that your
future experience would be of poverty or wealth?  Of course, you know
in advance that one copy will end up rich, but the 3-situation is not
at issue.  The issue is only whether your next 1-experience will be of
sudden wealth, or not.  It can only be one or the other, not both, and
which it will be is indeterminate in the usual sense of any lottery.
The point being demonstrated is that, regardless of the 3-situation,
you can never sum 1-experiences - they are always mutually
exclusive.  Isn't that clear?


It's unclear as to whom you and your refers to.

Brent

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Re: First person indeterminacy (Re: COMP theology)

2012-03-05 Thread meekerdb

On 3/5/2012 1:30 PM, John Clark wrote:
Yes.  I John K Clark just saw a 90 minutes documentary on the history of asphalt, and as 
that is certainly one of the large but finite number of 90 minute movies I can see on 
that screen it is entirely consistent with my prediction that John K Clark will see 
every 90 minute movie that screen can show.


 John K Clark


I generally agree with your view of this hypothetical duplication.  But I don't think the 
ambiguity of you after the duplication is corrosive of Bruno's general argument.  He's 
just taking Everett's interpretation of QM.  Do you, John, consider that a reasonable 
theory of quantum uncertainty.  If so, then they problem boils down to whether the 
Everett's interpretation is consistent with *digital* duplication.


Brent

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