Re: Re: Could universes in a multiverse be solipsistic ? Would this be aproblem ?

2012-11-02 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Bruno Marchal  

Thanks. Then the numbers are noit separate but
included in the truth.  My feeling is that the truth
then may be the truth(s) of information theory.


Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net 
11/2/2012  
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen 


- Receiving the following content -  
From: Bruno Marchal  
Receiver: everything-list  
Time: 2012-11-01, 11:36:18 
Subject: Re: Could universes in a multiverse be solipsistic ? Would this be 
aproblem ? 


On 01 Nov 2012, at 00:35, Stephen P. King wrote: 

 On 10/31/2012 9:39 AM, Roger Clough wrote: 
 1) Yes, numbers float in a sea of universal mind (the One). 
 
 2) Here's a thought. If the universe acts like a gigantic 
 homunculus, with the supreme monad or One as its mind, 
 then could there be a solipsism to our universe such that 
 other multiverse versions of oiur universe could not access 
 (the mind of) ours ? Would this be a problem for multiverse 
 theories ? 
 
 
 Roger Clough,rclo...@verizon.net 10/31/2012 
 Dear Roger, 
 
 I think that this idea is exactly wrong. The idea that numbers  
 float in a sea of universal mind (the One) makes the explanation an  
 infinite regress. 

Replace the One by arithmetical truth, and the infinite regress  
disappear. 

They reappear *in* arithmetical truth, but have fixed points (some  
provably, some non provably). No problem. 





 That is OK if and only if you allow for the concept of the One to be  
 Kaufman and Zuckerman's Quine Atom aka Russell operator, but if not  
 it does not work. Why? Because numbers have to be distinguishable  
 from to have individual values. The totality of numbers is an  
 infinity and thus have the property that their proper parts cannot  
 be distinguished from their totality. How does the One accomplish  
 this? It seems to me that we have to assume that the One is  
 conscious of the numbers and that makes the numbers something  
 different from the One for 1) to work and this is no different  
 from what a finite mind does. My point here is that a mind cannot be  
 infinite because it would be incapable of distinguishing it's self  
 from any of its proper parts - making it the ultimate solipsist. Do  
 there exist maps between the totality of an infinite set to an  
 improper part? If yes, what are their necessary properties? 

The One is solipsist, as the one is unique and alone. But I don't see  
why it should be conscious. It might be, but I see no evidence for this. 

Bruno 



 
 The idea of 2) seems to be demolished by Dennett's argument  
 against the homunculus or else the One is strictly a solipsist as I  
 argued above. I suspect that the mapping between wholes and improper  
 parts is the same as Bruno's measure problem. 
 
 --  
 Onward! 
 
 Stephen 
 
 
 --  
 You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google  
 Groups Everything List group. 
 To post to this group, send email to everything-list@googlegroups.com. 
 To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
 everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com  
 . 
 For more options, visit this group at 
 http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en  
 . 
 

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ 



--  
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
Everything List group. 
To post to this group, send email to everything-list@googlegroups.com. 
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com. 
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.

-- 
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
Everything List group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-list@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Re: Could universes in a multiverse be solipsistic ? Would this be aproblem ?

2012-11-02 Thread Roger Clough
ROGER: 
 Hi Bruno Marchal 
 
 1) Yes, numbers float in a sea of universal mind (the One). 

BRUNO: The ONE is much more than the universal mind, as it is where the  
universal minds compete, perhaps before eventually recognizing  
themselves and reuniting, or fusing, and coming back to the ONE  
(Plotinus' conversion). 

ROGER: OK, but this is different from Leibniz, where the supreme monad
is really the only mind, at least the only acting mind, although it
observes/adjusts the individual monads and their minds. I suppose
the changes in the monadic minds could be considered as thinking,
but more in the mode of computers. The monads are essentially
computer operations, the supreme monad more like the
computer CPU chip. 

Plotinus' concept of the outgoing and incoming of the many minds is
practically identical to the Tao = the One, out of which yin and
yang elements go out to operate the world and then return. 



 
 2) Here's a thought. If the universe acts like a gigantic 
 homunculus, with the supreme monad or One as its mind, 
 then could there be a solipsism to our universe such that 
 other multiverse versions of oiur universe could not access 
 (the mind of) ours ? Would this be a problem for multiverse 
 theories ? 

Not really because the multiverse illusion emerges from the  
statistical interference in all realities/dreams. But what you say  
might be locally true, if our substitution level is very low, like if  
a difference in the 10^(10^1000) decimal of h-bar would prevents  
consciousness to occur, or make it completely different (no need of  
zombies here). That would be astonishing, given the evidence, but comp  
certainly does not exclude, yet, such weird possibility. This would  
give a multi-multi-verse, at the least, as we already have evidence  
that our branches in the quantum multiverse can, and mostly, do  
interfere. 

Bruno 





 
 
 Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net 
 10/31/2012 
 Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen 
 
 
 - Receiving the following content - 
 From: Bruno Marchal 
 Receiver: everything-list 
 Time: 2012-10-30, 12:38:34 
 Subject: Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm 
 
 
 
 
 On 30 Oct 2012, at 14:23, Stephen P. King wrote: 
 
 
 On 10/30/2012 7:30 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote: 
 
 
 
 On 29 Oct 2012, at 22:38, Stephen P. King wrote: 
 
 
 On 10/29/2012 1:08 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote: 
 
 
 On 29 Oct 2012, at 14:36, Stephen P. King wrote: 
 
 [Bruno Marchal wrote:] So numbers are universal and can be treated  
 mathematically as always. 
 
 
 
 
 I agree, but the concept of numbers has no meaning prior to the  
 existence of objects that can be counted. To think otherwise is  
 equivalent to claiming that unspecified statements are true or false  
 even in the absence of the possibility of discovering the fact. 
 
 
 
 
 Dear Bruno 
 
 
 
 I think you confuse numbers, and the concept of numbers. 
 
 
 No, I do not. My claim is that Numbers are objects in the mind of  
 conscious beings. 
 
 
 This contradicts what you said before. It contradicts comp  
 immediately, as comp needs the understanding of what a computer can  
 do, even in absence of any conscious observer. 
 
 Dear Bruno, 
 
 It contradicts your version of comp, yes, but not mine, as I see  
 minds and numbers as co-existing simultaneously, there is no  
 ontological priority between them in my version. 
 
 
 
 Comp is only the assumption that the brain is a machine, to be  
 short. Then it is proved that the TOE is arithmetic (or recursively  
 equivalent). Matter and mind arise from the numbers (and + and *).  
 If you reintroduce a mind assumption, mind will be epiphenomenal. It  
 you reintroduce matter, it will be epinomenal. 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 If there does not exist worlds where entities to whom numbers are  
 concepts then there is no such thing as a concept of numbers in such  
 worlds. 
 
 
 But with comp, a conscious observer is explained by number  
 relations. We explain the concept of numbers, and of human  
 understanding of numbers, by number relations (computations). 
 
 
 
 Sure, but we should be able to 'go the other way' as well! You  
 seem to insist on a well founded relation where as I do not! 
 
 
 
 I derive proposition. I suggest nothing, nor do I insist on nothing,  
 except on reasoning validly. I am not a philosopher. you must  
 understand the technical result before philosophising on it. It is  
 subtle as comp makes a part of philosophy of mind into a branch of  
 science (indeed, arithmetic/computer science). 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 My argument is that concepts of truth and provability of theorems  
 apply only to the concepts of numbers and their constructions, not  
 to numbers themselves. 
 
 
 
 Truth applies to proposition, or sentences representing them for  
 some machine/numbers. If not, comp does not even makes sense. 
 
 Your version, yes. 
 
 
 
 Not my version. My version is just a technically more precise that  
 the