Hi Bruno Marchal 

We (I) don't know  whether the comp models the brain or the brain
models the comp, but it doesn't matter, if we consider
the brain changes to occur according to the Leibniz model of monadic
change. No actually forces are used, the states simply change 
synchronously: 

mathematics (comp)<-----> brain <-------> mind as monads

Like three little ballerinas with joined hands dancing sychronously in line .

[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
11/26/2012 
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen

----- Receiving the following content ----- 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2012-11-26, 10:47:29
Subject: Re: no thanks, doctor




On 25 Nov 2012, at 19:39, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal 

OK, I think I may understand the issue of consciousness.
Comp is what the brain does in the flesh, 


I see what you mean: the fleshy brain is supposed to do computation.
But the wording is a bit loose. By definition comp is the belief that [the 
needed work done by the brain to make you consciousness present in our most 
probable environment] can be done by a computer.




then
consciousness is a product of what the brain does .


Not really. That's the whole point. You can think like that in the begining of 
the reasoning, but in fine, despite it is highly counter-intuitive, the 
contrary happens to be the case. Brains, as material objects, do not exist. 
They are a product of consciousness coupled to deep and long computations. 
Don't take my word for it: this is really the conclusion of the reasoning. You 
must for that accept, if only for the sake of the argument, the definition of 
comp (which I call often step 0 on the list), then step 1, step 2 up to step 7 
and/or 8 to see what I mean by "the brain is a product of consciousness". Note 
that I did not say that the brain is the product of human consciousness: it is 
far more complex, and there are many open problem, but they are translated in 
pure math, and they lead to an infinity of experimental device description 
capable of testing comp. 







Comp is associated to the brain, but not to consciousness at least directly.


It is really the contrary. Comp is a belief that consciousness is invariant for 
some physical changes: 
brain=>computer, and it leads to the idea that matter emerge from 
consciousness, through the coherence (multi-consistence) of some numbers' dream 
(computation "seen from inside", like with the 1p and 3p distinction).


This is not well know, so you can take all your time and perhaps even find a 
flaw. 




Is that right ?


Comp bet on a relation between brain and consciousness, but in fine it will 
explains the physical structure of the brain through a theory of consciousness, 
itself explains in term of number relation.
But please: don't try to understand this intuitively without getting familiar 
with the UDA steps. It is really something that you have to understand 
logically to give meaning to it. Comp is counter-intuitive, provably so.


Bruno










[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
11/25/2012 
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen

----- Receiving the following content ----- 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2012-11-25, 09:51:05
Subject: Re: no thanks, doctor




On 24 Nov 2012, at 14:53, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal 

OK, I kept thinking that in comp, the computer calculations
had to do everything.  


The phrasing is ambiguous. The computer calculations, or equivalently the 
(sigma_1) arithmetical relation makes only virtual physics, and virtual dreams 
of virtual physics, and the real physics is something emerging in the mind of 
those dreaming entities. Note that with comp, dreams obeys very strict 
mathematical laws.






But you say that comp is not needed for
consciousness to occur.  But that is an assumption.


I do not understand. 


Comp is just the hypothesis that the brain makes our consciousness manifestable 
in virtue of emulating some programs.









One would need an additional assumption, that consciousness 
be the mediator in converting input physical sensory signals into 
nonphysical mental sensations such as hotness. 


In which theory? There is a sense that what you say is a consequence of comp. 
Obvioulsy if you say "yes" to the doctor, you believe that the brain-machine 
build by the doctor, from the scanning of your brain, will indeed interface 
correctly your first person consciousness to that machine and its environment. 
This is contained in the comp assumption, and this does not need to postulate a 
fundamental physical world, or a fundamental consciousness. At first it is 
better to be agnostic on this, so to see more easily if the reasoning is valid 
or not.










And for 
consciousness to achieve the inverse output process, of converting a
nonphysical mental  intention into a nerve signal for action.


And then, if you proceed step by step you will see that we don't have that 
problem, as the physical has no ontology at all. It does not exist per se. It 
is only dreamed by numbers. It emerges from the epistemology/theology of the 
numbers. 







Those assumptions are merely that-- assumptions. 


Comp is an assumption, and it is rather equivalent with what you say to 
paragraph above, but not with the one paragraph above.
All theories *are* assumptions. Consciousness is the only thing which can be 
said not being an assumption (at least not a conscious one!), but it is not a 
theory, it is an experience.






So thanks,
doctor, but no thanks. Comp requires huge additional assumptions
to be uised in my case for a transplant.


This is incorrect. Non-comp is a stronger assumption. To make it you need to 
speculate on something far more complex than whatever we know about brain and 
universe. Likewise, to even make sense of it, you should tell us what you think 
is not Turing emulable in the brain. 


Comp is so weak that Diderot defined rationalism by its ancestor mechanist 
doctrine.


Comp is phrased often by "no magic". It assumes the less, and then by UDA, it 
gives the simple TOE. Any Turing complete formalism (any Turing universal 
program, or system, etc.). And it explains constructively how to derive 
theology including physics, from just 0, 1, 2, 3 ... together with the laws of 
+ and *.  But you need to be familar with the first person indeterminacy to get 
a feeling how that is possible. You might need also some more knowledge of 
basic computer science, for the UD notion.


And the theology is close to your intuition on Plato and Leibniz. So gain your 
"no thanks" seems premature, and the reason you give is wrong as it assumes 
less than any other theory (much less, as it do not assume a primitive physical 
universe.


Bruno










[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
11/24/2012 
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen

----- Receiving the following content ----- 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2012-11-24, 07:03:29
Subject: Re: who is in control , you or the computer ?


Hi Roger Clough, 


On 23 Nov 2012, at 18:18, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal 

I blow hot and cold about comp because I am not
really a theoretical thinker, I have to see how whatever works,
and I' stuck on US(1) as I do not know who is in control:
you or the computer ?. 


You. the computer, or even the brain, is just a tool used by your consciousness 
to manifest yourself in the environment.


Brain and computer cannot, strictly speaking, think. Only person can think and 
take initiative. Comp does not assume a computer can think (if computer denotes 
the material machine), it assumes only that a computer can manifest the complex 
number relations, or programs relations needed for your consciousness to 
manifest itself in some environment.


Feel free to ask any question (perhaps regrouped so as to avoid mailboxes 
panic).


Bruno










[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
11/23/2012 
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen

----- Receiving the following content ----- 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2012-11-23, 12:34:00
Subject: Re: isn't comp a pre-established perfect correspondence




On 23 Nov 2012, at 13:14, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal 

The problem is very basic and concerns at least UD(1).
I would call it the "what's next" problem. 

Suppose you say yes, doctor and then wake up after the
transplant of a computer for your brain. Everything feels
fine, there is is no problem to solve, you have no immediate goal,
so what do you do next ? 


That is a funny question. I do not see at all the point. I guess that what I do 
next will be the usual things. I will pay the doctor bill, and come back to 
work, or take some rest, perhaps. The same question can be asked to someone 
getting an artificial heart, or coming back from hospital for any reason.


UD-1, actually UD-0, is just the definition of comp: the idea that the brain is 
a machine in the quasi-operational sense of accepting the transplant.


Then UD-1 is do you accept that if UD-0 is correct (comp is true), then we can 
in principle use classical teleportation (as described in the paper) as a 
locomotion mean?


Bruno











[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
11/23/2012 
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen

----- Receiving the following content ----- 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2012-11-22, 10:09:27
Subject: Re: isn't comp a pre-established perfect correspondence


Hi Roger, 




On 22 Nov 2012, at 13:57, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno

Wouldn't there have to be a pre-established perfect correspondence
between the mind of the human (or the state of the world) with
the computer in order for comp to hold ?


You don't need a "perfect" correspondence. What would that mean? Even a brain 
has to make a lot of approximate representations all of the time, and to 
correct many error through redundant neuronal circuitry. 











But that would require the computer to know the future.
Hence comp is false. 


You seem to be quite quick. I am not sure I see your point at all.


For comp being false, you need to postulate that there are some activities 
which are not Turing emulable in the body, but up to now everything in nature 
seems to be based on computable (Turing emulable) laws (except the wave packet 
reduction, which is itself quite a speculation).


Have you try to read the UD argument? Are you OK with the definition of comp, 
and step 1? 


Bruno










[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
11/22/2012 
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen



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