My contention is that Hindu 'Tantrism' probably originated during the
Gupta period (280 to 550 CE), or later, in India. The Tantras are
associated with 'medieval India,' having been written between 500 and
1800. Tantrism is not Vedic (1200 to 1500 BCE) or pre-Vedic, and did not
originate
The word 'Tantra' in the phrase 'Vainashika-Tantra' still remains
undefined. What kind of 'Tantra' was Shankara referring to? A textbook;
an esoteric practice; a metaphysical notion; a medication, a tool, or a
magical siddhi? So, apparently Shankara got mixed up. He wanted to
discredit the
