Vivekananda extended the empiricist epistemology that all knowledge is derived
from sense experience into the domain of metaphysics, for he thought that since
experience is the basis of all knowledge, then if a metaphysical Reality
exists, it, too, ought to be available for direct experience.
Thanks Richard and E.B., very interesting discussion!
The term 'samadhi' is a Buddhist term, not an Upanishadic or Vedantic term at
all. The term is used by the Shakya and Patanjali.
---In FairfieldLife@yahoogroups.com, wrote :
What Shankara says is that duality, such as the fundamental distinction
between subject and object, is
In his commentaries, when Shankara used the term “samâdhi”, he was using the
term as it was used in the Yogasutra-s of Patanjali where it was called
“asamprajnata-samâdhi ”. Later Vedantins used the word “nirvikalpa-samâdhi” to
refer to this same state of consciousness (chitta). Nirvikalpa
since false knowledge is the cause of bondage, samâdhi cannot therefore be the
cause of liberation.
We get it, but re samâdhi : Shankara is simply saying that it's not a
sufficient cause of liberation but it is surely a necessary cause. So MMY's
attempt at a mass initiation via the TMO is
What Shankara says is that duality, such as the fundamental distinction between
subject and object, is obliterated in deep sleep and in samâdhi, as well as in
other conditions such as fainting, but duality is only temporarily obliterated
for it reappears when one awakes from sleep or regains
"You're this you are that - blah blah."
A typical insult because there is no answer for a TMO sycophant. Instead of
examining the issue, yours is a display of your inability to evaluate
Shankara's statement.
Do you even own a copy of Shankara's Brahma Sutra Bhasya?
I think not.
Anyone who has seen your history posting here knows you are just pompous
bombast, another know it all know nothing.