[Fis] QI and probabilities: reply to Michel Petitjean

2006-05-27 Thread Andrei Khrennikov
  Dear Michael, 
The question on the difference between classical and quantum
probabilities is really fundamental for QI. The situation is not so
simple as it was described in the Email below. Yes, I agree that if we
consider one fixed experimental arrangement then we obtain the usual
classical probability. Statistical data follows the law of large numbers
and the relative frequencies give us approximations of probability. But,
as it was already emphasized in my previous Email, if we try to combine
statistical data obtained from a few different experiments then it would
be observed  the evident deviation from the rules for classical
Kolmogorov probability. One of such deviations we see in the two slit
experiment: we collect data for three different complexes of
experimental physical conditions (contexts): two slits are open, the
first is open and the second is closed and, finally, vice versa. The
well know formula of total probability is evidently violated (Richard
Feynman wrote about teh violation of the rule of addition of
probabilities).  The same behaviour is demonstrated by statistical data
for the EPR-Bohm experiment. I recall that there is also combined data
for at least three (and the real experiments four) experimental
arrangements. 

Then one could ask: Is this difference fundamental? So that one could
not in principle reduce the quantum probability to the classical one.
The answer of von Neumann and majority of quantum community is: yes, the
difference is fundamental. Quantum randomness is IRREDICIBLE. Therefore 
we should develop special quantum probability and even special quantum
logic.

Aa I pointed out, nevertheless, it is possible to find classical
probabilistic models which reproduce quantum probabilistic behaviour
EVEN FOR DATA COLLECTED IN DIFFERENT EXPERIMENTS. For example, Bohmian
mechanics: here quantum randomness is reduced to randomness of initial
conditions; stochastic electrodynamics: here quantum randomness is
reduced to randomness of vacuum fluctuations; Nelson\'s stochastic
mechanics -- the same as in SED. In the series of papers that I
mentioned in previous Emails I developed so called CONTEXTUAL CLASSICAL
PROBABILISTIC calculus that also reproduces quantum probabilistic behaviour.
Andrei 
 Dear Michael,
 
 Except minor differences such that real valued / non real valued or
 discrete / continuous, the probabilities computed for the roll of a
 die
 and those computed for a quantum system are not fundamentally
 different:
 they all obey to the rules in vigor in a probability space.
 In this sense, the probabilities computed for a quantum system are
 classical, despite that the calculation involves the modulus of the
 wave function: it is an additional property which does not preclude
 the validity of the properties of ordinary probabilities.
 
 Best regards,
 
 , Email:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 ITODYS (CNRS, UMR 7086)  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 1 rue Guy de la BrossePhone: +33 (0)1 44 27 48 57
 75005 Paris, France.  FAX  : +33 (0)1 44 27 68 14
 http://petitjeanmichel.free.fr/itoweb.petitjean.html
 
 From: Michael Devereux [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  Dear Jonathan, Andrei, and colleagues,
  ...
  And we know that these probabilities for quantum objects are
 calculated 
  from the complex value of each eigenvector (the probability
 amplitude) 
  but not, as is done classically, by determining the real-valued 
  probabilities associated with, for example, each roll of a die.
 (Again, 
  ...
 
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[Fis] Bell\'s inequality: Can we find its classical analogue? Classical and Quantum waves

2006-05-27 Thread Andrei Khrennikov
 Dear Aleks,

On one hand I like very much your example and discussion, but on the
other hand I do not think that your example can be used to illustrate
the situation with BellĀ“s inequality. 

Aleks: Bell\'s formulation implies that the hidden variable is
independent of the configuration of the detectors. On the other hand,
if we allow  for   the fact that the hidden variable is dependent on
the mutual   configuration, then there is no need to abandon the
classical framework.
Andrei:I completely agree with this viewpoint.

 To some extent this does imply some sort of non-locality. But it is
 the  same type of non-locality as in a perfectly classical context.
Let me describe an experiment.
Andrei: I completely agree with this viewpoint.


Andrei: But regarding the experiment  -- see my comment after your
description of the experiment.

Aleks: Imagine a bathtub. Imagine primitive measurement technology that 
 involves putting person A in the water so that his nose is aligned
 with 
 the water. He is measuring the incoming waves, and outputs 1 when a
 wave 
 splashes into his eyes, and 0 otherwise. There is another person B 
 measuring in the same way on the other side of the bathtub. You can 
 change the orientation of both people, and this will clearly affect
 the 
 frequency of water splashing into their eyes. Now throw a stone in
 the  bathtub, creating an entangled pair of wavefronts propagating in
both  directions. Measure the correlation of splashes into person A\'s
eyes and  person B\'s eyes.
 There are three interpretations of the resulting correlations of
 splashes: *

 (QM) The waves are in a superposition of splashing and
 not-splashing, 
 until person A experiences a splash or not-splash, and collapses the
 wave function. The collapse telepathically \informs-at-a-distance\
 the  other entangled wavefront whether person B will experience a
splash or not.
 
 * (New Age) The two detectors are not independent - they are an 
 entangled pair in the aether of global consciousness, with the 
 incredible ability of transmitting thoughts at a distance.
 
 * (classical) The fact that two people are in a bathtub with their
big  measuring apparatuses (bodies, noses and eyes) will affect the
joint  distribution of splashes. The position of one person will affect
the  measurements experienced by the other person, because it affects
the  shape of the body of water in which the wavefronts propagate.

Andrei: Unfortunately, you would not be able to violate Bell\'s
inequality in this way. Although you use waves, these are classical
waves. The crucial difference between the classical wave mechanics and
quantum wave mechanics is that the system of two classical waves is
still described by the wave on the same three dimensional physical
space, but in the quantum case (and this was first time emphasized by
Schrodinger) the corresponding equation for the the system of two
quantum waves, quantum particles, is written on the R^6 and not on
the physical space R^3. Essentially this is responsible for a special 
quantum correlations and the violation of Bell\'s inequality. So if you
like the source of nonlocality is already in Schrodinger equation.
Therefore I am not much excited by the Bell inequality. 

However, one may say: well we have a rather strange description of
quantum waves-particles, namely, by using the tensor product of Hilbert
spaces to describe composite systems, but it may be, nevertheless, a
purely classical and local model behind this? Of course, Bell would say
you: not at all.

But I say: it seems yes. And here I would like to follow precisely your
argument:if we allow  for   the fact that the hidden variable is
dependent on the mutual   configuration, then there is no need to
abandon the classical framework.

There is one thing that couple both detectors. This is nothing else than
time. In all experiments there is such a thing as  TIME WINDOW and 
experimenter identify two clicks as belonging to an entangled pair 
if these clicks are inside the time window. There is no other way to
identify a pair. We do not know times of emissions from the cristal.
Moreover, particles (considered as entangled and belonging to the same
pair) can be emited by different atoms. 

This time window couple two detectors or I would like to say determine 
unification of two local contexts of measurements. If there are two
fixed orientations A and B in lab1 and lab2, respectively, then by using
the time window we identify a special series of clicks in labs, so we
extract a special ensemble S_AB of particles. If we choose another
orientations, say C and D, then through the time window we shall get
another ensemble S_CD. If the situation is really such and ensembles are
really statistically different, then this gives us purely classical
explanation of the violation of Bell\'s inequality. However, it is common
to say that S_AB has the same statistical properties as S_CD. This is so
called FAIR SAMPLING ASSUMPTION. I thing it is