On May 21, 5:46 pm, Rui Miguel Silva Seabra [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Seg, 2007-05-21 às 15:43 -0700, mike3 escreveu:
Which is why I don't use the term myself. But I know what people
are referring to when they use it, and so I provided what seemed
like a plausible clarification so that the
On Apr 7, 1:43 pm, Alfred M. Szmidt [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
You cannot steal code, so such an analogy is without a point.
But you can still infringe the copyright.
That's what's being discussed.
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You cannot steal code, so such an analogy is without a point.
But you can still infringe the copyright. That's what's being
discussed.
No, what was being discussed was _stealing_ code, and you cannot do
that. If you wish to discuss copyright infrginment, then do not
discuss something
On May 21, 8:11 am, Alfred M. Szmidt [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
You cannot steal code, so such an analogy is without a point.
But you can still infringe the copyright. That's what's being
discussed.
No, what was being discussed was _stealing_ code, and you cannot do
that. If you
Seg, 2007-05-21 às 13:21 -0700, mike3 escreveu:
On May 21, 8:11 am, Alfred M. Szmidt [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
You cannot steal code, so such an analogy is without a point.
But you can still infringe the copyright. That's what's being
discussed.
No, what was being discussed
On May 21, 2:51 pm, Rui Miguel Silva Seabra [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Seg, 2007-05-21 às 13:21 -0700, mike3 escreveu:
On May 21, 8:11 am, Alfred M. Szmidt [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
You cannot steal code, so such an analogy is without a point.
But you can still infringe the
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In article [EMAIL PROTECTED] John Hasler
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
David Kastrup writes:
But that does not change that the copyright holder can ask a court to
stop Microsoft from distributing his software, and can claim damages
if he can make a
I wrote:
In the US he can collect statutory damages without proving any actual
damages.
Bernd Jendrissek writes:
As long as he has registered his copyright, no?
He has to register the copyright before he can file suit, yes.
--
John Hasler
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Dancing Horse Hill
Elmwood, WI USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED] (Richard Tobin) writes:
In article [EMAIL PROTECTED],
Tin Tin [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
One of the BSDs copies some GPL'ed code and releases it under the BSD
license.
What you stated has just happened.
I think he knows about what happened. He's asking who would be
David Kastrup writes:
But that does not change that the copyright holder can ask a court to
stop Microsoft from distributing his software, and can claim damages if
he can make a plausible case for them.
In the US he can collect statutory damages without proving any actual
damages.
--
John
In article [EMAIL PROTECTED],
Tin Tin [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
One of the BSDs copies some GPL'ed code and releases it under the BSD
license.
What you stated has just happened.
I think he knows about what happened. He's asking who would be liable
if Microsoft then used the BSD code.
--
Imagine the following scenario.
One of the BSDs copies some GPL'ed code and releases it under the BSD
license. True to form and history, Microsoft then copies that BSD code
into its own codebase and releases it under a proprietary license.
What happens legally now ? Isn't Microsoft the recipient
You cannot steal code, so such an analogy is without a point.
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One of the BSDs copies some GPL'ed code and releases it under the BSD
license.
What you stated has just happened.
http://www.theinquirer.net/default.aspx?article=38746
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