Hi,
Is a formal proof that the Haskell language is referentially
transparent? Many people state haskell is RT without backing up that
claim. I know that, in practice, I can't write any counter-examples but
that's a bit handy-wavy. Is there a formal proof that, for all possible
haskell
Edsko de Vries wrote:
See What is a purely functional language by Sabry. Not quite a formal
proof about *Haskell*, but then we would first need a formal semantics
of Haskell to be able to do that proof ;-)
Thanks for the reference, and also to everyone who replied - all very
useful and
Hi,
I've recently started using Yi, the haskell editor. I found it slightly
non-trivial to get started, so I've written up my installation method
and a beginners guide tutorial which I hope will be of interest to
other people who'd like to try Yi. It lives at:
