So I understand from http://hackage.haskell.org/trac/ghc/ticket/4083 that
GeneralizedNewtypeDeriving doesn't play well with TypeFamilies.
But, if a typeclass is only using type synonyms, is there any reason why
newtype deriving would not work? For a toy example:
class Cls a where
type MyType a
foo :: MyType a ->
in this case, if you have something like:
instance Cls () where
type MyType () = ()
foo = id
would:
newtype Bar = Bar () deriving (Cls)
be well defined?
Thanks, Max_______________________________________________
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