Hello VoidPrayer, Sunday, January 17, 2010, 5:32:55 PM, you wrote:
> By the way, is it only valid when "let" only affects the one expression after > that? I read "where vs let" in the HaskellWiki but all the examples are "let > ... in". the "let" inside "do" is just a syntax sugar: do xxx let yyy zzz ttt is equivalent to do xxx let yyy in do zzz; ttt -- Best regards, Bulat mailto:bulat.zigans...@gmail.com _______________________________________________ Haskell-Cafe mailing list Haskell-Cafe@haskell.org http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/haskell-cafe
