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I've seen a couple of different articles saying Iran "had to admit the
truth" once faced with the evidence. I'm a bit confused by this. Since when
has seeing evidence ever forced anyone in power to "admit the truth"? I'd
be interested in a more thorough analysis of why Iranian officials
eventually reneged knowing that it was the difference between keeping the
masses in their corner vs. re-awakening the mass revolts that had taken
place the months before. Surely they could have simply insisted that the
evidence is fake and it's a Zionist conspiracy and so on.
Amith R. Gupta
On Mon, Jan 13, 2020 at 9:36 AM Louis Proyect via Marxism <
marxism@lists.csbs.utah.edu> wrote:
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