Re: [Marxism] Stock Capital and the rate of profit

2009-10-12 Thread johnaimani
I think that if stock capital is read as sunk capital then the passage 
makes all the sense in the world.  See how he mentions large productive 
industries  railroads contant capital largest in its relation to 
variable  capital.

These are like or may even be monoplies ort near-monoploies (high barriers 
to entry and do not participate in profit equalization) but if calculations 
are made on entire investment then a low rate of profit obtaions.  Reminds 
me of Brenner when writing of US 'old capital' competing with new Japanese 
and German capital after WWII.

http://books.google.com/books?id=MdzRuGutydYCpg=PA44lpg=PA44dq=Brenner+sunk+capitalsource=blots=XvirFDu8cxsig=2yav1NxJKrrNz9IU-BmDzm-y62Ahl=enei=9BzOSt-BNpHuswPE57W_Dgsa=Xoi=book_resultct=resultresnum=3#v=onepageq=schrumpeterf=false

leading to low rates of profit.

The fact that they (by virtue of monoploy postition) are withdrawn from the 
equalization process thus leading to a higher (than would be otherwise) 
general rate of profit.

JAI

- Original Message - 
From: S. Artesian sartes...@earthlink.net
To: Activists and scholars in Marxist tradition 
marxism@lists.econ.utah.edu
Sent: Sunday, October 11, 2009 10:54 AM
Subject: Re: [Marxism] Stock Capital and the rate of profit


 You're not alone.  I've read that section over and over, worked for 
 railroads, and studied the economics of railroading, and I'm still not 
 sure that I grasp Marx's thought on this completely.

  I think, and emphasize think, that Marx finds that the portion of capital 
 represented in the issuance of stock and producing dividends is not part 
 of the process of creating a general rate of profit because the dividend 
 rates are so much lower than the average rates of profit.

 Of course, as Michael Milliken and the LBOs, vulture investors, asset 
 strippers have proven, that situation can be reversed-- utilizing the 
 purchase of joint stock companies to award themselves dividends, 
 interests, payment far above the actual rate of profit, in effect 
 liquidating the company from the inside.

 The stock-capital could be included, added to the constant capital, 
 employed in production, but if so, then the rate declines even more.  I 
 think, again emphasize, think we see something along these lines if you 
 look at the US Dept. of Commerce Quarterly Financial Review of 
 industries-- there you see rates of return calculated as a return on 
 equity, and rates of return calculated on net property, plant, equipment.


 - Original Message - 
 From: brendan cooney callmecoo...@gmail.com
 To: David Schanoes sartes...@earthlink.net
 Sent: Sunday, October 11, 2009 1:24 PM
 Subject: [Marxism] Stock Capital and the rate of profit


I have been puzzling over a paragraph in Volume 3 of Capital. I was
 hoping some kind and wise soul on the list might be able to help me
 understand it better. In the chapter on counteracting influences on the
 falling rate of profit Marx ends with a paragraph about the way in which
 Stock Capital enters, or doesn't enter into the rate of profit. I can't
 seem to wrap my head around Marx's argument. I understand that the
 division of surplus value into rent, interest, industrial profit, etc.
 is secondary to calculating the rate of profit. But then he says that
 interest payments don't go into the leveling of the general rate or
 profit, giving the example of railroads. Is he saying that joint-stock
 companies don't enter in the equalization of profit rates b/c dividend
 payments are lower than the real profit rate? Or is he saying that
 joint-stock companies do enter into the equalization of the rate of
 profit but must calculated in terms of total mass of profit in these
 industries and not just interest payments? How is this a counteracting
 influence?

 Lawrence Harris' entry on forms of capital and revenues in the
 Dictionary of Marxist thought says that joint-stock companies
 represented a unique historic stage in capitalism and act as a
 counteracting influence on the FRP because of their willingness to
 accept a lower yield as a result of the dominance of interest. But I
 don't see how a lower yield halts a falling rate of profit. I suppose
 that I may have to wait until I get to Part 5 of Volume 3, but that may
 take some time at the rate I'm going.



 



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Re: [Marxism] Stock Capital and the rate of profit

2009-10-12 Thread S. Artesian
Don't buy it.  First, because there is not, and never has been anything that 
resembles a monopoly in railroad industry; secondly because there is no 
mechanism by which the issuances of shares impacts profitability, or rates 
of profit; thirdly because monopolies or near monopolies offset their 
declining rates of profit only THROUGH the equalization process.  Look at 
the oil majors.

- Original Message - 
From: johnaimani johnaim...@earthlink.net
To: David Schanoes sartes...@earthlink.net
Sent: Monday, October 12, 2009 3:34 PM
Subject: Re: [Marxism] Stock Capital and the rate of profit




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[Marxism] Stock Capital and the rate of profit

2009-10-11 Thread brendan cooney
I have been puzzling over a paragraph in Volume 3 of Capital. I was 
hoping some kind and wise soul on the list might be able to help me 
understand it better. In the chapter on counteracting influences on the 
falling rate of profit Marx ends with a paragraph about the way in which 
Stock Capital enters, or doesn't enter into the rate of profit. I can't 
seem to wrap my head around Marx's argument. I understand that the 
division of surplus value into rent, interest, industrial profit, etc. 
is secondary to calculating the rate of profit. But then he says that 
interest payments don't go into the leveling of the general rate or 
profit, giving the example of railroads. Is he saying that joint-stock 
companies don't enter in the equalization of profit rates b/c dividend 
payments are lower than the real profit rate? Or is he saying that 
joint-stock companies do enter into the equalization of the rate of 
profit but must calculated in terms of total mass of profit in these 
industries and not just interest payments? How is this a counteracting 
influence?

Lawrence Harris' entry on forms of capital and revenues in the 
Dictionary of Marxist thought says that joint-stock companies 
represented a unique historic stage in capitalism and act as a 
counteracting influence on the FRP because of their willingness to 
accept a lower yield as a result of the dominance of interest. But I 
don't see how a lower yield halts a falling rate of profit. I suppose 
that I may have to wait until I get to Part 5 of Volume 3, but that may 
take some time at the rate I'm going.


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