Dear all,
If you could slow down this debate slightly, please can anyone tell
me if in Marx's own day what the relation between the amount of gold
in the economy and the amount of other commodies being exchanged was.
Was there (at that time) enough gold he;d to honour all the
transactions? And if there was not (and I believe there wasn't) what
was the cause of the short-fall?
I hope this is quite simple and could allow some point of agreement
before the discussion sinks into a tirade of abuse unrelated to the
question on Marx's undersanding of the fuction of Gold as the measure
of value.
Kind regards,
john walker
--- from list [EMAIL PROTECTED] ---
