Priest, Graham.
Beyond the limits of thought.
2nd ed.
Oxford: Clarendon Press; New York: Oxford University Press, 2002.

Chapter 13 is titled "Translation, Reference, and Truth." Here is where Priest engages Quine, Davidson, and others.

The postulation of semantic correlates is deep-sixed by Quine's behaviorism. Quine trashes any notion of mentalism, any notion of meaning not implicit in overt behavior. (Cf. Quine's "Ontological Relativity'.) Down with the 'museum myth' of meaning goes the deteminacy of sense. Another consequence is Quine's thesis of the indeterminacy of translation. In translating an unknown language, we find that there may be different analytical hypotheses for the language which conform to all observed speech dispositions. The reason there is no unique solution is the same we know there is none for any observed empirical regularities, after Hume. And what applies to unknown languages also applies to known languages, such as the English we are using now.

This, however, brings us to a familiar self-referential paradox. How are we to apply a determinate meaning to Quine's own statements? Are we all translating Quine's writings into our own idiolects, creating an indeterminate range of personal meaning-schemas? If this were so, how could we ever understand, or agree or disagree with Quine's views or with the arguments of one another about them? Yet it seems that Quine's utterances do have determinate sense in spite of his assertions.

Priest cites Searle as making a such an argument against Quine, Searle basing his objections on Quine's behaviorism. Priest, however, claims that behaviorism is not essential to the indeterminacy argument, as the argument would work just as well with intensional notions. (199) I made note of this given my absolute lack of respect for behaviorists.

From inscrutability of sense we derive inscrutability of reference, and then not just to the utterance of others but to one's own.

But we are once again led into the paradox of expression: the indeterminacy of reference cannot be expressed, yet here it is expressed perfectly. (201)

Quine is aware of the problem and is forced to conclude that the notion of reference is meaningless. Quine finds a number of subterfuges to circumvent the undesirable implications of this situation, such as reference to a background language, which Priest finds unsatisfactory. How then does one relate this background language to reality, and deal with claims about reality? Here at least Priest shows himself to be aware not just of paradoxes, but of the shortcomings of empiricism (204).

Next comes Davidson, who is neither a behaviorist nor an extensionalist. Priest outlines Davidson's specs for a theory of language. He uses Tarskian theory to construct a finitely axiomizable theory of truth for a language.

This would seem to follow in the footsteps of Frege, who suggested that the "meaning of a declarative sentence is its truth conditions." I fail to see why this is so. It seems to me a prima facie senseless supposition.

OK, so suppose we can construct a theory of a natural language in the language itself. Davidson admits of a problem here. Priest asserts that the attempt to resolve the contradiction at the limit of cognition results in a contradiction at the limit of expression (206-7).

Davidson, in "On the Very Idea of a Conceptual Scheme" finds himself in another quandary, argues that the claim that the conceptual systems of two speakers may be different, or the same, is senseless.

Such is the legacy of the progression Frege->Wittgenstein->Quine->Davidson.

Clearly there is something wrong with all this, but what? Presumably, Priest is interested in the unavoidability of contradiction at the limits of thought, and thus the universality of his Inclosure Schema. He never asks the salient question: why equate in the first place language (the linguistic expression of thought) with formal logic? What is the relationship of both to each other and to reality? In fact, these questions are evaded from first to last? Perhaps one might pursue this hypothesis: the logical conclusion of positivism (and hence 'postpositivism') is mysticism.

ADDENDUM: It would be instructive to compare the relation of logic to language as philosophers see it as to the way that real linguists see it. To be sure, logic becomes central to linguistic theory in the wake of the Chomskyan revolution, but would any linguist interested in the logical structure of natural language venture the claim that the meaning of a sentence is its truth conditions? Linguistic theory indeed mandates the formulation of natural language sentences in a formal apparatus (hence the interest in Montague grammar, for instance), yet the perspective seems to be different: to stretch logic to fit the facts of natural language, not to assume that language is just logic in longhand. There's something very very wrong about what analytical philosophers have done in their single-minded reduction of ontological and epistemological questions to linguistic ones, the latter themselves reduced to formal-logical terms.




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