Re: [R] Understanding why a GAM can't suppress an intercept

hi Andrew. gam does suppress the intercept, it's just that this doesn't force the smooth through the intercept in the way that you would like. Basically for the parameteric component of the model '-1' behaves exactly like it does in 'lm' (it's using the same code). The smooths are 'added on'

Re: [R] Understanding why a GAM can't suppress an intercept

Simon, Many thanks as always for your help. I see and appreciate the example that you cited, but I'm having a hard time generalizing it to a multivariate case. A bit about my context -- my dataset is response ratios; the log of a treatment over a control. One of my explanatory variables is

[R] Understanding why a GAM can't suppress an intercept

Dear List, I've just tried to specify a GAM without an intercept -- I've got one of the (rare) cases where it is appropriate for E(y) - 0 as X -0. Naively running a GAM with the -1 appended to the formula and the calling predict.gam, I see that the model isn't behaving as expected. I