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of
the 2 groups -- in SAS, this does the trick -- test 'group difference in
shape' age_squared*group1 -1; age_cent*group 1 -1
Suggestions would be greatly appreciated
Thanks in advance
Dede Greenstein
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Hello
For an unbalanced longitudinal data set with subjects nested within
family as the random effect (random= ~1 | FAMILY/ID)-- I am unclear as to
why the subject within family random coefficient is not zero when there is
only one person in a family with only one data point.
Thanks
Dede
hello
i have a mixed effect model which gives slope and intercept terms for 6
groups (diagnosis (3 levels) by risk group(2 levels)). the fixed part of
the model is --
brain volume ~ Diagnosis + Risk Group + (Risk Group * age : Diagnosis) - 1
thus allowing risk group age/slope terms to vary