offense intended but, if noone
> replies,
> That means that noone else understood either.
>
>
> -Original Message-
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Alan Gibson
> Sent: Tuesday, May 01, 2007 8:02 PM
> To: R-help@stat.math.ethz.ch
> Sub
It seems like this should be pretty straight forward, but for some
reason the answer escapes me.
I have a normal distribution S made up of two normal distributions C
and C-bar. I need to find the percentage of the area of S that both C
and C-bar occupy.
Any suggestions?
Thanks in advance,
Alan G
