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Am I right in thinking that the resistive component of the speaker's
impedance is effectively in series with its inductance? Say, 5 ohms
for an 8 ohm speaker? If so cable resistance is not so frightening
for domestic runs.
It's not so difficult to provide negative output impedance to counter
If you do not do something tricky with the amplifier--
and no commercial consumer audio amplifier intended for
universal use does this trickiness, or none I am aware of--
then the cable impedance operates as part of the amplifier
output impedance. This means that the amplifier
will not be flat