I could be wrong, but something doesn't seem right. Can someone help clarify
how the equations relate to the code?
It was previously given that:
V(r) = 1/vol sum_K (c_K exp (iKr) )(2)
exp (iKr) = 4 pi sum_LM (i**L j_L(Kr) Y_LM(K) * Y_LM(r)(3)
Combining (2) and (3),
V(r) =
Hi,
thank you for the detailed explanations.
this is always the case which are well known although often omitted in
simple textbooks. I am 99.8% certain that MSR1a will also not be
trapped in a saddle point although there is currently no analytic
proof of this.
I agreed, it was a help to
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