Re: [Wien] magnetic susceptibility for a ferromagnetic metal or for a ferromagnetic semiconductor

Note that the internal field in a metal (or an insulator) is not homogeneous. This is because of the inhomogeneous distribution of electrons. You don't have a homogeneous distribution of induced magnetic moments, and with that the susceptibility also is inhomogenous. chi is chi(r), a function

Re: [Wien] magnetic susceptibility for a ferromagnetic metal or for a ferromagnetic semiconductor

Thank you very much for your detailed answer What I understood from what you wrote is that the DFT does not accurately estimate the magnetic susceptibility. honestly what is encouraged me to take an interest in this property is the paper of Prof. Robert Laskowski and Prof Peter Blaha (doi:

Re: [Wien] magnetic susceptibility for a ferromagnetic metal or for a ferromagnetic semiconductor

From what I have understood from userguide and Prof P Blaha's replies; For semiconductor and insulator; there is the orbital part of the magnetic susceptibility only but for the metals there is also the spin part No! This is not correct. Let me expand a little on my view of this topic in

Re: [Wien] magnetic susceptibility for a ferromagnetic metal or for a ferromagnetic semiconductor

Thank you very much for your response How to calculate the spin part of the magnetic susceptibility for a ferromagnetic metal since the magnetic moment is different from zero. 2017-07-19 13:34 GMT+02:00 Wien2k User : > I did not underestimate his answer and the proof I

Re: [Wien] magnetic susceptibility for a ferromagnetic metal or for a ferromagnetic semiconductor

>From what I have understood from userguide and Prof P Blaha's replies; For semiconductor and insulator; there is the orbital part of the magnetic susceptibility only but for the metals there is also the spin part and I ask Prof. P Blaha and Prof Gerhard Fecher to confirm this answer or to

Re: [Wien] magnetic susceptibility for a ferromagnetic metal or for a ferromagnetic semiconductor

I did not underestimate his answer and the proof I thanked him and I apologize if I did not convey my message well 2017-07-19 12:48 GMT+02:00 Wien2k User : > Dear Fecher, Gerhard > > You can answer me directly instead of asking me all these questions > otherwise I thank

Re: [Wien] magnetic susceptibility for a ferromagnetic metal or for a ferromagnetic semiconductor

Well, I wouldn’t underestimate the value of Gerhard Fecher’s answers. They are no direct answers, yes. They are much more valuable than that (look up the meaning of ‘socratic questioning’, e.g. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Socratic_questioning). An answer constructed by yourself, following a

Re: [Wien] magnetic susceptibility for a ferromagnetic metal or for a ferromagnetic semiconductor

Dear Fecher, Gerhard You can answer me directly instead of asking me all these questions otherwise I thank you for your answer and I will look for this book to read it and in the meantime I will wait for the answers of the users and prof P. Blaha that I much prefer. 2017-07-19 3:47 GMT+02:00

Re: [Wien] magnetic susceptibility for a ferromagnetic metal or for a ferromagnetic semiconductor

How do you define the magnetic susceptibility ? Did you hear about the field dependence of the magnetisation and hysteresis in ferromagnets, isn't the permeability of an ferromagnet depending on the applied magnetic field ? I suggest to read some tectbook on magnetism, e.g. by M. Coeye or by J.