I believe that if DNS is running on a machine, DNS makes itself
available to all networks connected to that box. Check out DNS and BIND
(O'Reilly & Associates; ISBN: 1565925122) or consult a DNS guru for the
accuracy of this statement.
Why would this be useful?
GREAT QUESTION- And something I've been considering for a while now. Can
anyone tell me if the following makes sense (read: does it really work
this way?):
I believe that, if you were to register your own domain
(www.yourdomain.com) with interNIC (woops, I mean Network Solutions:
http://www.networksolutions.com) you need to provide them with a primary
(and secondary) DNS server, who will translate "www.yourdomain.com" into
an IP address. Obviously, you would want to be your own primary DNS
site. But, if your entire network is hiding behind STN, how would this
be done?
Although I haven't done this, it appears, that you would provide
InterNIC with the IP address that your cable modem provides your STN
router (assuming, of course, that this address is static or at least
comes with a rather long lease from your ISP). When some surfer out on
the net, attempts to go to www.yourdomain.com, his initial request will
be pointed to port 53 of your STN machine. This is the STN DNS server.
This should return the same external address of your STN machine (since
your internal IP address are meaningless outside your network). When the
actual http request comes back to you (via port 80), your STN machine
will transfer the packets to the appropriate machine in your network.
This gets defined in your "Inbound Services" page.
Has anyone done this?
Am I missing something?
Feel free to correct me (but, please no flames)...
...steve...
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