> > So - have you folks noticed your reading habits change with the means of > reading? Is this a special case of the Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis [1]? >
Short answer, yes. Slightly longer answer: yes, but eventually it became like any other book that I ignore. But I don't see how Sapir-Whorf is relevant here, because there's no linguistic impact on reading. But perhaps I misread you, and what you meant is that there is a medium-based relativity induced by moving from a book to a Kindle. I'm inclined to disagree at this point, because (a) there isn't enough data to indicate this, (b) whatever data exists is corrupted because people still read through both deadtree and electronic media, and (c) the data is not being gathered at a steady state, so the relativity is skewed by the state of experience. The last bit interests me: in my case, reading behaviour peaked, and then dropped, though the steady state is higher overall than before. However, my reading of deadtree books has grown, not the Kindle content, which still remains at about a book a month. I find this interesting because the single-sample data point is counter-intuitive, but not surprising. Curious to see what the larger pattern might be. -- Sumant Srivathsan http://sumants.blogspot.com
