And which part of the wording in RFC 4458 do you use to justify that?

The whole point of the question is that we are trying to ascertain what is a 
legitimate conformance with RFC 4458.

regards

Keith

________________________________
From: [email protected] [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Hans Erik 
van Elburg
Sent: Friday, April 10, 2009 9:06 AM
To: DRAGE, Keith (Keith)
Cc: [email protected]; Cullen Jennings; Francois Audet; Elwell, John
Subject: Re: [Sip] Clarification on RFC 4458: SIP URIs for Applications such as 
Voicemail and Interactive Voice Response (IVR)

Specifications that only include the cause value mappings as specified in 
RFC4458 reuse only that part of RFC4458.

Such reuse is of course fine, but carefull wording is required not to imply 
full conformance with RFC4458 as that would lead to the wrong 
implications/expectations.

/Hans Erik van Elburg


On Wed, Apr 8, 2009 at 6:06 PM, DRAGE, Keith (Keith) 
<[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
RFC 4458 defines two SIP URI parameters.

I can find no specific language in the document that indicates whether these 
two URI parameters can be used independently of each other, or whether there is 
an expectation that both URI parameters should only exist in the presence of 
each other. Specifically does an implementation that only includes the "cause" 
SIP URI parameter and not the "target" sip URI parameter conform to this 
specification?

All the text and examples seem to carry the implication that where one exists, 
the other one will also.

Could one of the authors or some other interested party clarify what they 
believe the intention is?

regards

Keith
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