I think the quick answer is no. I will use an example of a system I configured recently to explain. This system uses a 1Gb network for all slurm traffic and system services and an infiniband network for interprocess communication. As such I configured the topology file to be based on the infiniband switch topology rather than the ethernet topology.
Antony On 13 Dec 2014 12:53, "Williams, Kevin E. (Federal C&I)" < [email protected]> wrote: > Researching the use of topology.conf and wondering if the switch topology > used must correspond to the interconnect that is used for slurm > communications. That is, if nodes in the slurm configuration have multiple > interconnects available, and the one used to define the nodes in slurm > partitions is a 1GB network, does the switch topology have to reflect that > particular network topology? > >
