Why?--I don't ask this to be facetious. It comes down to a "propensity to consume type argument," does it not? Couldn't you just as easily accomplish the task through the redistribution of income from ownership rather than the redistribution of the ownership? Might it not be the case that the existing patterns of ownership are the most efficient patterns of ownership in terms of production? That is an empirical question that cannot be answered a priori, from pure theory.
More to the point in terms of social credit, we are talking about income that is not spent that might be spent if we redistribute it to those with a higher propensity to consume. We are talking about the ownership of the means of production. But what do we accomplish by taking away from those who are not spending? They will fight us tooth and nail, will they not?
Why should not spending hurt anybody? It is because that's the way the economy is structured and nobody knows why. Why not simply augment the income of those who can't spend from non-existent income or income that is deficient--which is the social credit solution?
We can do that by transposing the concept of corporate dividend to the economy as a whole, where the dividend is paid from the national credit (capital) account.
Which balances the production of productive capacity to real demand.
---original message--- From: "W. Curtiss Priest" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> Reply-To: [EMAIL PROTECTED] To: "List, Social Credit" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> Subject: RE: [SOCIAL CREDIT] binary economics critique, and Date: Sun, 13 Jul 2003 10:27:32 -0400
Ashford: "Capital and labor are independently productive and the distribution of capital ownership has a positive relationship to the employment of unutilized productive capacity and economic growth." --
W. Curtiss Priest, Director, CITS Research Affiliate, Comparative Media Studies, MIT Center for Information, Technology & Society 466 Pleasant St., Melrose, MA 02176 781-662-4044 [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://Cybertrails.org
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