I now repeatedly see SPAM from a source that has no MX record in their rDNS domain and they apparently know how to by-pass greylisting.
I decided to follow the example in this mailing list and used telnet <mailserver> 25 to test my server. I started with all DNS Tests active and first I got rejected because of reject-ip-in-cc-rdns which was correct, because nslookup <myip> indeed returns a reverse Domain name with my IP address included and is from a country domain. I deactivated reject-ip-in-cc-rdns and did the test again. Now I was rejected because of reject-unresolvable-rdns. And indeed dig <reverse domain> a fails to respond. I deactivated reject-unresolvable-rdns and did the test again. Now I was not rejected any more, but when I do dig <reverse domain> mx it fails to reaspond, meaning there is no mx record. Shouldn't Spamdyke have rejected it on this basis? I did the same test from a server that has no country in the domain, but has not mx record. I noticed that both are subdomains. My connections address is in the format <ip-address>.static.jazztel.es When I test dig jazztel.es mx indeed it responds. Could it be Spamdyke tests MX of the domain instead of the subdomain? Is that a wise thing to do, since many ISP will have a MX in their domain, isn't it?
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