--- In [email protected], Rune Wesström
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> Nothing to argue about but I was astonished at his " my guess is
that the language has changed less over here than over there" (over
here is Apparently America).
Yes, it does seem surprising -- you might have expected *some*
influence from all those non-English-speaking settlers!
Maybe he has somehow got the notion that we all spoke the same way
four or five centuries ago. If he sees bigger regional variations
within the UK today than within the US, he might imagine that
American English has stayed closer to that "original" language, and
that the British accents and dialects have emerged since then. But
there were "always" big regional variations here: cf. Chaucer &
Langland, who wrote in quite different dialects, both in C14.
It's hard to guess what he might have been thinking to come up with
that.
Mike
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