[While approving this message for the list, I have added a response. --Will]

I have a query regarding repeated measures data. I have a baseline 
measurement, and 3 post intervention measurements - and due to the large 
variability of the data I am collecting, I have found it much more 
meaningful to normalise the data. So baseline is 100%, and all 
post-intervention measurements are normalised to that i.e. an increase of 
10% would be represented as 110%, or a decrease of 10% would be 90%.

[That's not "normalizing" in the usual sense. But what you are appear to be 
saying is that the post-test values, as a percent of the pre-test, look 
more like a normal distribution. Or it could be that the effect of the 
intervention on each subject looks about the same for each subject, if you 
represent the effect as a percent of baseline rather than as an absolute 
value.  Whatever, if you think percents rather than absolutes are involved, 
the first thing to try is log transformation. You transform pre and post 
values, and analyze those. You derive the percent effect from the analysis 
of the log-transformed variable. I explain how at newstats.org.]

Whilst this gives a much clearer picture to myself and the reader as to the 
changes that have occurred over time, it has given me a statistical query. 
Is there anyway I can analyse the normalised data statistically? If I did a 
repeated measures then all the baseline data would be 100%, and therefore 
have no standard deviation at all - would this affect the analysis? I have 
analysed the raw data with a repeated measures, but because there is so 
much variation in the data, any changes are 'drowned out' where-as if I 
normalise each individual to their baseline I can see quite clear changes 
occurring over time.

[You use the usual statistical modeling--ANOVA and such--on the 
log-transformed variable. You should check that the transformation is 
appropriate by viewing a plot of residuals vs predicteds. You can also use 
the t statistic on the percent change scores you have calculated without 
using logs. For modest percent changes (~10%) it will give the same answer. 
For larger percent changes, the answer from log transformation is probably 
better, but it depends on the uniformity of the residuals of the log 
variable compared with the uniformity of the percent changes of the raw 
variable. This is a subtle point that you shouldn't worry about, because 
no-one has ever compared log with percent transformation. Just use logs. 
Nature is usually logarithmic.

Note that, as I state at my stats site, the change in the mean (or in the 
value of any other kind of effect derived from log or any other 
transformation, including your percent approach) differs from the value 
derived directly from the raw numbers. Which approach gives the "correct" 
value? Answer: the approach that gives the best uniformity of the 
residuals, because uniformity of residuals means that, apart from random 
error that is of the same magnitude for every subject, the mean applies to 
every subject. (There can still be consistent individual responses...) And 
as I stated in a posting some months ago, the value for an effect derived 
from a transformed variable that gives uniformity of residuals and 
therefore a symmetrical distribution of residuals is a kind of parametric 
or superduper median, although the only responder did not seem to 
understand or appreciate this idea. See message #2443 
http://sports.groups.yahoo.com/group/sportscience/message/2443 and the 
response #2451.]

Any help or advice is always greatly appreciated.

Emma Hawkes
PhD Research Student
Brunel University
Uxbridge Middlesex UB8 3PH UK 






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