The Western Calander has very little to do with the birth of Jesus of 
Nazareth.  The western calandender dates back to the reign of Julius Caesar, 
and was created to resolve differences between the calander year and the time 
of the seasons.  The aim was to keep the equinoxes on March 21st and Sept 
21st, and to keep the Solstices on June 21st and Dec. 21st.  (It does this by 
adopting a basic 365 year with leap years every 4 years.  (Later it was 
tweaked to exclude years evenly divisable by 100 from leap years unless the 
year is evenly divisable by 400).  My understanding is that years in the 
roman empire were given in AUC (Ab urbe conditia, from the founding of the 
city--the legendary founding of Rome in 753 b.c.)  And this wasn't changed to 
the current A.D. (anno domini, year of the Lord) until centuries later.
     Contrary to what you hear, Christmas wasn't meant to be the birth of 
christ, rather if you look at the obvious etymology of the word, it is the 
mass of Christ.  Dec. 25 wasn't picked at random, however, this was an 
attempt to redefine the pagan ceremonies typical at that time celebrating the 
solstice (which in the north of course means the lengthing of days, or in 
pagan perspective victory of the god of light over the god of darkness)
    So the answer to the question why doesn't the year start on Dec. 25 is 
just as you suggest, the traditional Roman start of January 1st is used.  (I 
believe the Roman new year started on March 21st)  As you suggested the years 
past could of course be redefined so that the millenium starts on 2000, but 
the amount of confusion wouldn't make it prohibitive.  (All B.C. dates would 
have to be moved back 1 year to accomodate the year 0.)


In a message dated 12/24/99 10:54:19 PM Atlantic Standard Time, 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

<< Here's a dumb question:  
 
 If our western year odometer is calibrated by the birth of Jesus Christ,
 why does it start seven days later?
 
 We all know that the actual birth date of Jesus is a guess, later
 calculated from historical evidence as probaby 4 years later, but why
 doesn't the year start on December 25?
 
 I'm assuming that year's the roll-over date, which is an arbitrary date
 near the Winter solstice, was already well established at the time the
 Christian authorities started trying to correlate the birth date with the
 calendar in use.  It was customary to cite dates as "in the reign of" a
 king or emperor so the new reign started from the following rollover.  Or
 if we wanted, couldn't we set the birth back a year?  Since we don't really
 know when Christ was born anyway maybe he was born on December 25, 1 BC.
 If so wouldn't that make the year of his birth year 0?  If Jesus was born
 in 1 B.C. then wouldn't that make 2000 be the "true" millenium?  
       
  >>

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