Hi all,
 
I think it's OK with John Davis definitions of inclination as the angle to the
horizontal and reclination as the angle to the vertical, both as technical
terms and regardless our rich and venerable common languages could
say... The problem is that in some articles I have seen the 'inclination'
defined in the opposite way, and I wanted to know if there was some
philological reason in it. I wouldn't like to deepen into it because I am
not philologist and maybe the thread could drift to some awkward topic
quite away from sundials, you know what I mean  ;-)
 
Anyhow, I think it's desirable to have good standarization rules, and
perhaps maybe somebody should complete the excellent list of symbols
and terms made by the people at the BSS so as to internationalize it.
(Did you know that in some countries, like France and Spain, the equation
of time is defined just the opposite way than in the USA and UK ?... Oh no, here
we are again!!! :-)))))
 
Anselmo Perez Serrada 
    
  
 
 

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