Hello all and greetings:

We've recently switched to pfsense to, among other things, take advantage of
the multiple WAN feature.

So, we have two interfaces defined thusly:

<wan>
        <if>em0</if>
        <mtu/>
        <blockpriv/>
        <media/>
        <mediaopt/>
        <bandwidth>100</bandwidth>
        <bandwidthtype>Mb</bandwidthtype>
        <spoofmac/>
        <disableftpproxy/>
        <ipaddr>74.x.x.4</ipaddr>
        <subnet>29</subnet>
        <gateway>74.x.x.3</gateway>
</wan>
<opt1>
        <if>sis0</if>
        <descr>WAN2</descr>
        <bridge/>
        <enable/>
        <ipaddr>170.x.x.2</ipaddr>
        <subnet>30</subnet>
        <gateway>170.x.x.1</gateway>
        <spoofmac/>
        <mtu/>
</opt1>

WAN(WAN) is a T1. OPT1(WAN2) is a DSL.

We created a LoadBalance Gateway with WAN and WAN2, as follows:
<lbpool>
        <type>gateway</type>
        <behaviour>failover</behaviour>
        <monitorip/>
        <name>LANLoadBalance</name>
        <desc>Load Balance LAN</desc>
        <port/>
        <servers>wan|208.67.217.132</servers>
        <servers>opt1|208.67.217.132</servers>
        <monitor/>
</lbpool>

We have users in the field trying to access an FTP server on the LAN via the
OPT1(WAN2) IP address. Without me going any further, is such a thing
feasible?

Thanks,

Dave


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