Hello all and greetings:
We've recently switched to pfsense to, among other things, take advantage of
the multiple WAN feature.
So, we have two interfaces defined thusly:
<wan>
<if>em0</if>
<mtu/>
<blockpriv/>
<media/>
<mediaopt/>
<bandwidth>100</bandwidth>
<bandwidthtype>Mb</bandwidthtype>
<spoofmac/>
<disableftpproxy/>
<ipaddr>74.x.x.4</ipaddr>
<subnet>29</subnet>
<gateway>74.x.x.3</gateway>
</wan>
<opt1>
<if>sis0</if>
<descr>WAN2</descr>
<bridge/>
<enable/>
<ipaddr>170.x.x.2</ipaddr>
<subnet>30</subnet>
<gateway>170.x.x.1</gateway>
<spoofmac/>
<mtu/>
</opt1>
WAN(WAN) is a T1. OPT1(WAN2) is a DSL.
We created a LoadBalance Gateway with WAN and WAN2, as follows:
<lbpool>
<type>gateway</type>
<behaviour>failover</behaviour>
<monitorip/>
<name>LANLoadBalance</name>
<desc>Load Balance LAN</desc>
<port/>
<servers>wan|208.67.217.132</servers>
<servers>opt1|208.67.217.132</servers>
<monitor/>
</lbpool>
We have users in the field trying to access an FTP server on the LAN via the
OPT1(WAN2) IP address. Without me going any further, is such a thing
feasible?
Thanks,
Dave
---------------------------------------------------------------------
To unsubscribe, e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
For additional commands, e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED]