We're talking musical origin not dance origin. Apples and other apples ;) The musical reference serves the point that new influence mutated the form so in that sense it's the dance but, if you refer back I was talking about the music. No one is saying that IS Indian or gypsy but, you can identify stronger flavors in a style of fusion. It's about studying grades of nuance not slap in the face obviousness in the music. -Adriel
> From: <[email protected]> > Date: Thu, 06 Aug 2009 18:58:09 +0000 > To: <[email protected]> > Subject: Re: [Tango-L] Tango is Argentine > > <<<Which brings us back to my gypsy reference starting in India affecting the > Moors, melding with Jewish culture in Spain, up to eastern Europe and then > back, i.e. the spice trail.>>> > > Regarding the origins, the trail is being traced back to ridiculous extremes > with this line of thought and is missing Sergio's very valid point; that is > wasn't so much the original Indo/European cultures that produced tango. It > was the mixing together of these cultures once they were in the New World in a > way that would not have happened back in the Old World. Tango did not come > from those origins; tango is a New World product that came from Argentina. It > is not a Sephardic or Indian folk dance. You can't just keep tracing back > farther and farther. (The English language has roots in Sanskrit but that > doesn't mean it is Indian.) If that were the case, you could carry this back > to the Neanderthals and to the caves at Altamira (in Spain) and look for > tangueros on the walls. Hybridization occurs because of several factors, but > place and time (and timing) are probably two of the most important ones. > > Cheers, > Charles > > _______________________________________________ > Tango-L mailing list > [email protected] > http://mailman.mit.edu/mailman/listinfo/tango-l _______________________________________________ Tango-L mailing list [email protected] http://mailman.mit.edu/mailman/listinfo/tango-l
