> This does not seem to make sense. No matter what you are measuring it is
> assumed that the phase noise of the item being measured is greater than the
> piece of test equipment doing the measurement, else you would not see it.

My reason for asking this is that given I have nothing to make a phase
noise measurement with, but are likely to have two oscillators, both old
and of unknown condition. It would be useful if I could determine that
neither of the two are seriously flawed.

And yes, I am well aware a noiseless oscillator does not exist.



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