Hello,
No... if you heterodine, you multiply, so if both frequencies are the
same you have sin(wt)^2 = 0.5(cos(0) - cos(2wt)), so you have DC plus
the double freq. If they are pi radians appart, you have
sin(wt)*sin(-wt) = 0.5(cos(2*pi) - cos(2wt)), so you have -DC plus the
double freq. If they are in quadrature, ie pi/2 appart, you have
sin(wt)*cos(wt) = 0.5(sin(0) + sin(2wt), so you have the double freq.
but no DC.
Best regards,
Javier, EA1CRB
On 27/4/20 10:08, Taka Kamiya via time-nuts wrote:
I have a question on heterodyining concept.
Say you have f1 and f2. Say you have f1 <> f2. Then the product is |f1+f2|
and |f1-f2|. (fundamental is not considered here)
What would happen f1 = f2? If phase is the same, it will be 2sin(omega t).
(amplitude doubles) If phase is an odd multiple of pi radian different, result
is zero. (cancels out each other)
What I am trying to do is to first, understand this in case where f1 = f2, and
second, mix f1 and f2 and get f3, which is a sum of f1 and f2. Doubling won't
do.
Can someone help me understand this? I haven't seen discussion of cases where
source frequencies are equal anywhere.
---------------------------------------
(Mr.) Taka Kamiya
KB4EMF / ex JF2DKG
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