This is my first time posting here; Hi and thanks for your service to the
community. Nothing like choosing a hot button topic to begin with...!

It seems there is some significance to knowing, the best we can, about
"incidence" of homosexuality (for lack of a better word at the moment),
and indeed of heterosexual and bisexual orientations. I think it is useful
to know these rates cross-culturally and temporally; if these rates are
*relatively* unchanged over time and culture, as I suspect they are,
doesn't that say something about the fixed nature of variation in sexual
orientation phylogenetically?

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