On Sat, 9 Dec 2006, Paul Brandon went:
The problem is that it is not clear that even the 12-15% is a real difference in the sense that itis due to a specific drug effect.
But why would a placebo effect reliably show a "therapeutic lag" of 3-4 weeks, as the therapeutic effects of antidepressants do?
the side effects of drugs are often discriminable from placebos (a true placebo would have the same side effects as the drug to which it was being compared) so it is possible that subjects in studies may be aware of whether they are in the drug or placebo condition,
I remember that argument. But if it's true, why aren't tricyclic antidepressants (with their very prominent anticholinergic side effects) much more "effective" than SSRIs (whose side effects tend to be less prominent)? --David Epstein [EMAIL PROTECTED] --- To make changes to your subscription go to: http://acsun.frostburg.edu/cgi-bin/lyris.pl?enter=tips&text_mode=0&lang=english
